I saw this posted by another LCMSer on an ecumenical messageboard. I've never thought of it like this and I'm wondering if you have any thoughts.
My thought was that if God commanded John the Baptist to baptize the first time around, then coming from God that should be good enough to not need to be repeated. Can someone give me a more educated thought on this?
MT 3:11 "I baptize you with water for repentance. But after me will come one who is more powerful than I, whose sandals I am not fit to carry. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and with fire.
Hi everyone!![]()
In my Sunday School class we're studying the Gospel of Matthew and in preparing my lesson on the baptism of Jesus, a question popped up in my tiny little brain: Did those who were baptized by John need to be baptized again into Jesus's death and resurrection?
If you believe that baptism is symbolic this question may not make sense. I believe baptism is efficacious, meaning it actually accomplishes something. It appears to me that John's baptism WAS one of symbolism, an outward sign of inward repentance, but as we see in Romans 6, being baptized now unites is with Jesus's death and resurrection. Hence my question; after Jesus died and rose, were John's 'baptiz-ees' (for lack of a better word) 'grandfathered in' to the efficiacy of the baptism available to us today? Or did they need to be baptized again, this time with the cleansing water of Jesus's baptism?
My thought was that if God commanded John the Baptist to baptize the first time around, then coming from God that should be good enough to not need to be repeated. Can someone give me a more educated thought on this?