I guess when I read the parables I feel they're defuct of complexity.
Also common commentaries on the use Jesus' teaching by parables are compared with the vs that states that he would use the simple to confound the wise...
Need more?
Precisely where does Jesus state that he would use the simple to confound the wise? The closest I can find is Matthew 11/Luke 10, in one instance Jesus is talking about the miracles He manifested to John (the Baptist)'s followers, in the other He is talking about the miracles performed by the Seventy-Two. Or it is a statement by Paul directly relating to the foolishness of the cross and resurrection, nothing much to do with Jesus' parables.
As an Asian reader I find a lot of implicit meaning that may not be very clear to readers outside Asian culture. A good place to start would be
Sting in the Tail by Dr. Kim Tan (IIRC), treats the Oriental nuances of the stories very well.
I'm reminded as I formulate this post of the times of Jesus when he taught the Jewish communities in which he lived and worked. Oddly, he spoke simplistically, holding great revelation back from those who would not understand.
One only needs to look at the issue of the divorce certificate command to see that Jesus' relationship with the Torah was far more complex than a simple creationist "God's Word says it and that settles it!" literalism. I typed this up somewhere here sometime ago but I lost it so I'll have to redo all this.
The incident in question is recorded in Mark 10 and Matthew 19. Mark 10 is quoted more often by creationists so I'll use that since it's likely that you'll be more familiar with it
Jesus then left that place and went into the region of Judea and across the Jordan. Again crowds of people came to him, and as was his custom, he taught them.
Some Pharisees came and tested him by asking, "Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife?"
"What did Moses command you?" he replied.
They said, "Moses permitted a man to write a certificate of divorce and send her away."
"It was because your hearts were hard that Moses wrote you this law," Jesus replied. "But at the beginning of creation God 'made them male and female.' 'For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh.' So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate." When they were in the house again, the disciples asked Jesus about this. He answered, "Anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her. And if she divorces her husband and marries another man, she commits adultery."
Mark 10:1-11, NIV
What happens here is that essentially Jesus reinterprets the Torah. He breaks all the rules: He refers to information outside the text to interpret the text (for nowhere in the Torah does it say that Moses did this due to the Jews' hard-heartedness), He does not take the text at its plain meaning (which would never betray its being given as a stopgap measure), and He essentially says that the Torah's measure was inadequate and (morally) inaccurate.
Furthermore, when He attributes the giving of a divorce certificate to the hardness of their hearts, He brings into question one of the images that the OT uses to describe
God:
This is what the LORD says:
"Where is your mother's certificate of divorce
with which I sent her away?
Or to which of my creditors
did I sell you?
Because of your sins you were sold;
because of your transgressions your mother was sent away.
Isaiah 50:1 (NIV)
I gave faithless Israel her certificate of divorce and sent her away because of all her adulteries. Yet I saw that her unfaithful sister Judah had no fear; she also went out and committed adultery.
Jeremiah 3:8 (NIV)
Now, Moses told the Jews to give certificates of divorce because they were hard-hearted, says Jesus. Doesn't that imply that God Himself was hard-hearted when He is spoken of as issuing a certificate of divorce to Israel?
You can see where I'm going here. Jesus in "taking liberties" with the Torah even calls into question the interpretation of Scriptures outside the Torah. And what He is saying here is that the Torah, which was given explicitly to prescribe morality, was not even perfect in these prescriptions.
Whereas what we TEs are saying is merely that the Torah was not even given to describe reality, and therefore should not be expected to be perfect in those descriptions. The modifications we suggest are mild compared to those Jesus suggested.