Happy Wonderer said:
I would like to second the Malevolent milk Man's post. How can 'will' be constrained without something to constrain it?
hw
Well, nature itself 'constrains' it actually. If you read the thread on free will then this will not be new. But I'll summarize:
There are two categories of events (for particles, but you can extend this to include cellular events in the brain...the events are simply multiplied).
1. Caused: Some sequence of variables and forces that gives rise to an event. By definition caused events are not willed, they are predetermined by the variables and the forces in nature, over which we have no control.
2. Uncaused: I suppose the quantum factor fits here. Intrinsic randomness in a system gives rise to an uncaused event. By definition, random events are not 'willed' either...how could they be?
note: some superposition of the two above still does not allow for willed events since both exclude it anyway.
Its perfectly legitmate to say that events in your brain chemistry would be governed by the laws of chemistry and physics, right?
It boils down to this: if you claim you are in control of your brain chemistry and are able to spontaneously create brain events (say to will your arm to move), what mechanisms are you using to exert that control? If the mechanisms of control are within the matter of the brain, then events in those control areas would be either caused or random as well (ie how are you controlling the control area?).
If you think about it, the logic is inescapable. If these things are true (and they are perfectly legitimate) then there can be no free will.
You can't escape it with 'we don't know much about the brain' either. Its a simple matter of whether or not you believe that any natural event is either caused or random...the complex nature of intertwined brain events is not relevant. As far as we know, there are no other kinds of events. So if you believe in free will, science stands firmly against you (for now).
If you don't believe that natural events are either caused (determined) or uncaused (random), then how do we categorize them?
BTW, I was surprised at this argument myself when I first heard it...but I can't find any flaw in the logic.