How do you *know* that is true for *all* types of inelastic scattering processes?
Of all the inelastic scattering processes known, can you show a single example where a change in wavelength can occur with θ = 0?
HINT: Billiard balls are
far from a good example of how quantum mechanics works, maybe used in high school (not even that really, but whatever)...
That's a rather "bold" and currently unsupported statement. How about demonstrating that point, inelastic scattering method by inelastic scattering method.
It's currently an entirely supported statement.
Elendur isn't quite right in one detail, strictly speaking - it is perfectly acceptable to have a "scattering" angle of zero as regards scattering mathematics, irrespective of the semantics of the word, but if you take Compton scattering as an example, as has been pointed out repeatedly....
the zero value of theta requires that the difference in wavelength before and after is zero.
The travel distance for a photon from a distant galaxy to us means that a scattering angle of
anything other than zero (or so imperceptibly close to zero as makes no difference) would result in that photon "missing" its target.
Given the multiple (millions?) of scattering interactions you seem to be assuming happening en route and then averaging out...the chance of numerous non-zero angles adding up bang on to zero in a three dimensional space on a routine and consistent basis...is incalculably large.
Compton scattering is ruled out for other reasons too, particularly the fact that the temperatures involved would cause subsequent blueshifts due to the thermal motion of the scattered electrons. This was pointed out by Higgs (L.A., not Peter) based on work by Paul Dirac, which also noted that the width of Compton-scattered lines was simply too great to be part of the observed cosmological redshift. Not to mention a further failure, namely that Compton scattering is strongly wavelenth dependent where the cosmological redshift is observed to be strongly wavelength independent.
A lot depends on *exactly* which inelastic scattering method is most responsible for the redshift. I can't answer that question yet, but I'm looking into it.
That's nice, since you've previously said it as a statement of fact that "
The causes of plasma redshift include Compton redshift, the Wolf effect, Stark redshift and what Chen et all called 'plasma redshift". Still so sure about that?
The Wolf effect, AC Stark effect (as in Chen's paper, it's simply that) are
wavelength dependent - which rules them out right away. Not to mention that both consistently create redshifts AND blueshifts, so there should logically be blueshifted quasars (spotted any?).
Also, the Wolf effect you're citing only applies to correlated non-Lambertian sources, and
cannot produce line shifts greater than the width of the spectral line - unless you are considering it in tandem with Brillouin scattering...which of course would be somewhat ridiculous on the cosmological scale unless you wish to claim some kind of geocentric universal correlation of the intergalactic medium respective to us here on Earth, as well as the correlation of the many photons heading in our direction such that the Wolf effect could be observed in the first place...
So...it really
doesn't depend on which one is 'most responsible' though, because you haven't shown that *any* inelastic scattering can lead to the observed cosmological redshift (strongly wavelength and specially independent, essentially consistent over time and in every direction we look).
Before saying which one is '
most responsible' perhaps you should try and show that
any of them '
can be responsible' at all....