Amd that your religion has no place in law-making, why should gay marriage be banned?
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Amd that your religion has no place in law-making, why should gay marriage be banned?
Such a definition does indeed result in banning homosexual marriage. It bans every arrangement not provided by the definition.Defining a marriage as being between one man and one woman is not banning, it is defining what the citizens are willing to grant incentives or qualifies for recognition... and there are more than just one model that doesn't qualify for it.![]()
The OP isn't flawed. It asks you to assume religion has no place in law making. The OP isn't claiming that all decisions must be secularly based, but asks you to give a secular reason for banning gay marriage.Besides, your OP is flawed. The U.S. doesn't require Secularism to be the ideology of its citizens. Brush up on Representation, Rule by Consent, the First Amendment, Constitutional Democratic Republic, or anything else that inherently renders that OP as not applicable.
I've highlighted the important word there.Such a definition does indeed result in banning homosexual marriage. It bans every arrangement not provided by the definition.
The OP isn't flawed. It asks you to assume religion has no place in law making. The OP isn't claiming that all decisions must be secularly based, but asks you to give a secular reason for banning gay marriage.
Although we certainly don't permit virtually every kind of conceivable marriage contract, there should be justification for preventing a marriage, (which there clearly is for most prohibitions), and such a prohibition must pass the constitutional test. Again, the only justifications I can think of to ban homosexual marriage are religious ones and they fail constitutionally (not to mention fail the OPs premise). If the government is going to grant certain economic and property rights and dictate certain responsibilities for a contract between two persons, then there should not be discrimination regarding which two persons can enter into such a contract unless such discrimination has a valid and constitutionally passable justification.I've highlighted the important word there.
Perhaps you would like to humor a request:
Name one country that recognizes and promotes every possible type of marriage. Any definition will indirectly not include something.
I fail to see the importance you claim.I've highlighted the important word there.
You seem to be agreeing with me. Whether a law directly or indirectly excludes certain actions, those actions become effectively banned. The definition of a full stop involves all four (or two) wheels ceasing to turn. Requiring a full stop before turning right at a red light bans all turns which do not involve a full stop. Requiring a marriage to include one man and one woman bans all other arrangements.Perhaps you would like to humor a request:
Name one country that recognizes and promotes every possible type of marriage. Any definition will indirectly not include something.
It asks for nothing of the sort. A secular argument is not a make-believe condition. Indeed, for those of us who are not religious, secular arguments are the only condition.Flawed and for the reasons given.
It asks for a make-believe condition that would not be the U.S. if it were a true condition.
It might be passable hypothetical for a Communist or Dictatorship country though.
I've highlighted the important word there.
Perhaps you would like to humor a request:
Name one country that recognizes and promotes every possible type of marriage. Any definition will indirectly not include something.
Flawed and for the reasons given.
It asks for a make-believe condition that would not be the U.S. if it were a true condition.
It might be passable hypothetical for a Communist or Dictatorship country though.
Although we certainly don't permit virtually every kind of conceivable marriage contract, there should be justification for preventing a marriage, (which there clearly is for most prohibitions), and such a prohibition must pass the constitutional test. Again, the only justifications I can think of to ban homosexual marriage are religious ones and they fail constitutionally (not to mention fail the OPs premise). If the government is going to grant certain economic and property rights and dictate certain responsibilities for a contract between two persons, then there should not be discrimination regarding which two persons can enter into such a contract unless such discrimination has a valid and constitutionally passable justification.
Yes, that would be a secular argument. The argument is vague, ambiguous and flawed.STATE CONSTITUTION (EXCERPT)
CONSTITUTION OF MICHIGAN OF 1963
§ 25 Marriage.
Sec. 25.
To secure and preserve the benefits of marriage for our society and for future generations of children, the union of one man and one woman in marriage shall be the only agreement recognized as a marriage or similar union for any purpose.
History: Add. Init., approved Nov. 2, 2004, Eff. Dec. 18, 2004
So, I suppose it is time for one side of this discussion/debate to start proving those unsupported assertions.
Perhaps a SCOTUS decision declaring that my State's Constitution (among many other states) is violating the U.S. Constitution or show how that wording is establishing a religion.
Well, I agree in this for certain, that SCOTUS needs to decide if there are equal protection violations or not. They certainly are better versed on the constitution than I and are better at explaining why I might be wrong.Well, fortunately for the given various citizens, they are not held any person's Argument of Ignorance.
I keep seeing that empty claim that some don't see or know of a totally religion-free reason. Yet at the same time, there is an ignoring of the fact that the citizens petitioning, voting on and passing an Amendment stating they collectively are willing to promote a specific model IS a secular reason.
This is from my State's Constitution:
STATE CONSTITUTION (EXCERPT)
CONSTITUTION OF MICHIGAN OF 1963
§ 25 Marriage.
Sec. 25.
To secure and preserve the benefits of marriage for our society and for future generations of children, the union of one man and one woman in marriage shall be the only agreement recognized as a marriage or similar union for any purpose.
History: Add. Init., approved Nov. 2, 2004, Eff. Dec. 18, 2004
So, I suppose it is time for one side of this discussion/debate to start proving those unsupported assertions.
Perhaps a SCOTUS decision declaring that my State's Constitution (among many other states) is violating the U.S. Constitution or show how that wording is establishing a religion.![]()
Yet at the same time, there is an ignoring of the fact that the citizens petitioning, voting on and passing an Amendment stating they collectively are willing to promote a specific model IS a secular reason.
What exactly about a definition having a qualified and not qualified grouping gave you the misunderstanding of misdirection? It seems simple and common enough principle to me, but then again I don't presume to call the definition of say senior citizen a "banning" of teenagers or the definition of marriage in a State's Constitution a "banning" of people gathering together for a ceremony and exchanging promises to one another.Seems like a case of misdirection here. He wasn't arguing that every type of marriage needed to be recognized, merely stating that by default that all other types are banned. You actually appear to be agreeing with his point, that your definition bans gay marriage.
I suppose the notion that a hypothetical not having the ability to be flawed is a new one for me.Who claimed it wasn't flawed? Hypothetical questions do not have to conform to reality -- part of why they are hypothetical.
Instead, the OP appears to be using it to ask what reasons beyond religious reasons there are to ban gay marriage. That you chose to argue that the hypothetical question could not appear in the real world would appear to indicate you have no answer to his question. (Note: I'm not saying that you cannot, since that would be a logical fallacy, it just gives that appearance)
You're acknowledging something that is not a fact. What is being requested is equal protection under the law. How private citizens view gay marriage is irrelevant to the request being made.At least I'm not having a problem acknowledging the fact of what is being promoted in the gay advocacy rhetoric is a desire that the citizens (whether or not they consent to it or have their Rights violated) promote, endorse, grant incentives, etc. toward same-gender couplings.
You demand a "reason" that can only be answered by every citizen that voted on such an amendment.No it isn't. What is the reason for the admendment? What is the reason they are collectively petitioning the government?
Other than one's personal issues with gays, I see no reason, anywhere. There is no threat, no danger from gay marriage. Very similar to interracial marriage, there are no good reasons to ban it, other than people's personal issues with blacks.
You demand a "reason" that can only be answered by every citizen that voted on such an amendment.
To say that every citizen's reason(s) were the same is not intellectually plausible and violates the principle of a Democracy that brought it to a vote in the FIRST PLACE.
Someone will have to let me know when the U.S. requires its citizens to give essays detailing their individual reasoning for every vote they cast.
Until such time, I'm not impressed by claims of the ESP required to speak for such a vast number and in such absolute.
Other than one's personal issues with homoerotic desires, equally immoral behavior, ignorance and/or misplaced emotion captivity for those that are caught up in such, I see no reason, anywhere that I or anyone else needs to endorse it.
By the way, racial does not mean what someone does as a sexual practice.
So while some might cling to that attempt, don't be too suprised to find that the interracial comparison only insults and alienates much of racial populace.