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None of you liberals can answer me why this applies to homosexulaity but not the teachings of love. Again you can't cheery pick the bible, it's either the entire infalliable word of God or it's garabge. If the bible is just "a guide" I'll go back to being an athiest.Yres, I believe in the Trinity...
However, if you are trying to tell me that the person of Jesus dictated Leviticus... then why did Jesus incarnate recind bits of it? Doesn't that seem to be an example of him contradicting himself?
Or, could it be that the Bible is infact only a spiritually INSPIRED guide, written by humans, and subject to human error, mistranslation, bias, agenda, and contextual shift?
Sir, do you realize that it was only in 1971 that the word "inerrant" as removed as a word when referring to the bible and changed to "infallible"? Inerrant was and still is the hallmark of docturine for fundamentalism. They use it as a term to mean quite simply...the bible is true. Period. End of story. They do not interpret...it is a literal read. However, when the change was made to "infallible", they freaked out. Infallible meaning, the Bible, accomplishes its purpose of bringing people to a saving knowledge of God and guiding them in living the Christian life. This change caused a major attack by the fundies, who then went out with a book called "The Battle for the Bible". You should read it. As we know..Fundamentalists are defined as a "militant orthadox that hold their truth to be firm and unwaivering". Just putting it out there b/c I see you use the term that is always equated with the Bible now. However, there is that movement out there that has never changed their mind and still continues to use "inerrent". I think that's what you would be as it seems when you read the bible..it doesn't proke thought. You just take it for what it literally says, without reason. for those calling it infallible, it is an INSPIRED work that man wrote on God's behalf.None of you liberals can answer me why this applies to homosexulaity but not the teachings of love. Again you can't cheery pick the bible, it's either the entire infalliable word of God or it's garabge. If the bible is just "a guide" I'll go back to being an athiest.
And there in lies the problem ManOfTheAmish... perhpas you saying "come in here with their junk science" doesn't set you up for being attacked? Why state such a loaded question if you don't want to be attacked. Just keep in mind, for every wrong there is a right. For every door that is closed, another one opens. For every link you post saying what's immoral or unethical, there will be one to challenge that, and thus the world goes round...unless you believe it's flat.I have listed a whole bunch of scientifical reasons of why homosexuality is unnatural in the ethics and morality sub forum of this site.
I could list them here again in this thread but I know the homosexual advocates will just come in here with their junk science and I really don't feel like going through all that again.
Let me see if I can find some links.
. . .
[SIZE=-1]So, I'm sorry to tell you it is very much NATURAL to be homosexual because it is what NATURALLY comes to gay people. . .[/SIZE]
[SIZE=-1]Sir, do you realize that it was only in 1971 that the word "inerrant" as removed as a word when referring to the bible and changed to "infallible"? Inerrant was and still is the hallmark of docturine for fundamentalism. They use it as a term to mean quite simply...the bible is true. Period. End of story. They do not interpret...it is a literal read. However, when the change was made to "infallible", they freaked out. Infallible meaning, the Bible, accomplishes its purpose of bringing people to a saving knowledge of God and guiding them in living the Christian life. This change caused a major attack by the fundies, who then went out with a book called "The Battle for the Bible". You should read it. As we know..Fundamentalists are defined as a "militant orthadox that hold their truth to be firm and unwaivering". Just putting it out there b/c I see you use the term that is always equated with the Bible now. However, there is that movement out there that has never changed their mind and still continues to use "inerrent". I think that's what you would be as it seems when you read the bible..it doesn't proke thought. You just take it for what it literally says, without reason. for those calling it infallible, it is an INSPIRED work that man wrote on God's behalf.[/SIZE]
a) The terms are pretty much used to mean the bible is true. So what? That was my point in the first place.a)Sir, do you realize that it was only in 1971 that the word "inerrant" as removed as a word when referring to the bible and changed to "infallible"? Inerrant was and still is the hallmark of docturine for fundamentalism. b) They use it as a term to mean quite simply...the bible is true. Period. End of story. They do not interpret...it is a literal read. However, when the change was made to "infallible", they freaked out. Infallible meaning, the Bible, accomplishes its purpose of bringing people to a saving knowledge of God and guiding them in living the Christian life. This change caused a major attack by the fundies, who then went out with a book called "The Battle for the Bible". You should read it. As we know..Fundamentalists are defined as a "militant orthadox that hold their truth to be firm and unwaivering". Just putting it out there b/c I see you use the term that is always equated with the Bible now. c)However, there is that movement out there that has never changed their mind and still continues to use "inerrent". I think that's what you would be as it seems when you read the bible..it doesn't proke thought. You just take it for what it literally says, without reason. for those calling it infallible, it is an INSPIRED work that man wrote on God's behalf.
OR some parts are more relevant and "correct" than others, and it works fine as a theoretical guide, but not so well as a step by step instructional manual for day to day living.it's either the entire infalliable word of God or it's garabge. If the bible is just "a guide" I'll go back to being an athiest.
vs.a) The terms are pretty much used to mean the bible is true. So what? That was my point in the first place.
b) Who said anything about literalism?
c) No that's not what I mean, I mean infalliable. Again, I don't support literalism I support a good hermanutic.
Help me out here... I'm confused...it's either the entire infalliable word of God or it's garabge. If the bible is just "a guide" I'll go back to being an athiest.
vs.Help me out here... I'm confused...
Why don't you explain it to me?Do you understand the difference between literalism and biblical truth?
Why don't you explain it to me?
Particularly how it must ALL be "true" or garbage... I have a real problem with such either/or simplicity
Literalism... the belief that the Bible is Literally true and without any errorCan you please give me your definition of litarlism so I can address your post in the best manner possible.
Literalism... the belief that the Bible is Literally true and without any error
Homosexuality... why do people feel guilty about it? Because of the condemnation they recieve from society, not an inherent guilt at the act, unlike murder, which can cause guilt and trauma purely due to the event, without social implication...
Um... well ACTUALLY... thats not correct.Rediculous, society has put the exact oppisite spin on the debate! Guilt does not, can not, and will not come from other people.
So... do you think you are taking the context, situation, historical period, personal experience, bias, etc of the author into account when you assume that a 3000 year old injunction against homosexuality is relevant today?But it must be read in accordance with what the author intented it to be read taking into account its author (genre, situation, context..ect).
[SIZE=-1]So... do you think you are taking the context, situation, historical period, personal experience, bias, etc of the author into account when you assume that a 3000 year old injunction against homosexuality is relevant today?[/SIZE]
Now you're taking what I'M saying out of context..."the context, situation, historical period, personal experience, bias, etc of the author" <= This part of your argument directly contradicts, this part, => "when you assume that a 3000 year old injunction against homosexuality is relevant today"
What makes you think that some parts of the Word of God, is not relevant today? I must have missed the part where certain passages expire in 2007.
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