frumanchu said:
In the case of the elect, they are elect when they are born but they do not necessarily possess faith when they are born, and thus Christ's righteousness is not yet imputed to them nor are their sins expiated. Election is they decree that God will save that person (formal cause), but faith is the means by which that decree is carried out (instrumental cause) and it does not occur at the same time as election.
I figured that this is what you meant and I almost thought to talk about it in my last post. I understand what you mean and where you're coming from. I just think there's a bit of a misunderstanding with regards to time and eternity. Time is a product of a finite mind. We conceive of time because we are not eternal. In the mind of God, there is no time. God's mind is eternal, which is why his decree is eternal. All of God's decrees are immediate. He does not decree that we will be saved and then wait around and direct the course of the world so that it will happen. It is already complete in God's mind,
we are the ones working out the details (which have also been ordained by God). Faith and election only seem disconnected to us because we only understand faith in a spatio-temporal, finite sense. God's decree of election entails faith and as we are eternally elect, we eternally have faith. The concept of the "time" at which we became saved is only present within our finite minds.
Consider it from God's point of view. God knows we are elect, right? God has decreed the elect have faith, right? If God knows one is elect, then God knows that one has been given faith. If God knows this, then it is so. If God knows it, it is
eternally true, for if truth changed in the mind of God, he would not be immutable. It is impossible for God to "know" that we will at some point have faith. He does not "know" in the context of time because he is eternal. Eternity is the absence of time and time is a product of the finite mind.
In other words, the elect are eternally elect, eternally have faith, and eternally have Christ's righteousness imputed to them. This must be true because God knows it and God is eternal. It is one of his essential characteristics and, as a logical predicate, it attaches to everything he knows and does.
Within the context of God's decree, everything is immediate and simultaneous. Within the context of our finite minds, the two are something quite different. So, it therefore depends on what sense, or what "time" you talk about faith. If we talk about the faith of the elect, then election logically predicates faith, which is predicated by God's eternal decree, which means we are speaking of the eternal faith of the elect, which leads us to the problem of definiton when we say that it is hypothetically possible for someone to be elect but never have faith and thus go to hell. It's not even hypothetically possible because it is logically contradictory.
frumanchu said:
Jon, what I am hypothesizing is the very same thing Peter speaks to in 2 Peter 3:9. It is hypothetically possible from a logical standpoint that He could come in judgement before the full number of the elect had been brought to faith and repentance, but practically (and theologically) impossible that He will do so because He is not willing that any should perish.
Because of the confusion regarding time and eternity above, I do not think 2 Pt. 3:9 is in context.
Soli Deo Gloria
Jon