• Starting today August 7th, 2024, in order to post in the Married Couples, Courting Couples, or Singles forums, you will not be allowed to post if you have your Marital status designated as private. Announcements will be made in the respective forums as well but please note that if yours is currently listed as Private, you will need to submit a ticket in the Support Area to have yours changed.

  • CF has always been a site that welcomes people from different backgrounds and beliefs to participate in discussion and even debate. That is the nature of its ministry. In view of recent events emotions are running very high. We need to remind people of some basic principles in debating on this site. We need to be civil when we express differences in opinion. No personal attacks. Avoid you, your statements. Don't characterize an entire political party with comparisons to Fascism or Communism or other extreme movements that committed atrocities. CF is not the place for broad brush or blanket statements about groups and political parties. Put the broad brushes and blankets away when you come to CF, better yet, put them in the incinerator. Debate had no place for them. We need to remember that people that commit acts of violence represent themselves or a small extreme faction.

Are infants guilty because of Adam's sin?

tdidymas

Newbie
Aug 28, 2014
2,786
1,131
Houston, TX
✟213,708.00
Gender
Male
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Single
Politics
US-Republican
This question is only for those holding to Reformed Theology. In the Westminster Confession (or London Baptist 1689) it mentions that infants who die are "regenerated and saved by Christ through the Spirit." But in my mind this is vague and possibly conflicts with scripture in implications; but sounds more like speculation to work around the "Original Sin" issue that even infants are guilty due to Adam's sin being imputed to them. I question this doctrine with a series of questions below.

I was prompted to this question by R.C. Sproul's survey results on the question "Are we born innocent" wherein 64% of evangelicals agreed. I was not appalled at that result (as Ligonier was), because I question the doctrine of imputed sin to people who have not sinned (infants). Essentially, I question the idea that Adam's sin is imputed to mankind, as distinct from Adam's sin nature is inherited by mankind.

These questions are all related, so there may appear some redundancy. I'm trying to get a handle on what the scripture actually states about the issue.

1. I don't see the scripture teaching the imputation of Adam's sin, but I do see it teaching the inheritance of the sinful nature (traducianism). If Augustine (and the confessions) mean these issues to be the same thing, then I think it imposes some confusion about the spiritual state of infants. Are these issues the same, or not?

2. If infants are guilty by imputation, then how do you interpret Rom. 7:9 and Rom. 4:15? It looks like these verses imply the innocence of infants (people who have not yet learned right and wrong). Exegesis would be helpful, or a link to interpretive commentaries.

Rom. 4:15 -

Rom. 7:9 -

3. It appears to me that innocence does not mean "basically good" or "not having a sin nature." In the teachings I have read on the subject, there appears to me some confusion, that teachers seem to make no distinction. So then, "having a sinful nature" does not necessarily mean a person is guilty, because "through the law comes the knowledge of sin." It seems to me that a person must know moral law, that is, know right from wrong, in order to be guilty of wrongs committed (per Rom. 4:15 and 7:9). If this is the case, then children too young to know right from wrong really are innocent. What do you think of this?

4. Do the confessions that say infants are regenerated, do they mean all infants, or does it mean only those who die? If it means only those who die, or even limited to only those elected to salvation, then when does the regeneration happen - before or after they die? There is an implication here. If they're saying that all infants are regenerated, then how can a regenerated person become spiritually dead after sinning? This is inconsistent with the idea that regenerated people are saved and can't lose their salvation. And if not all infants who die are regenerated, then how can God send them to hell when they have not sinned?

a. If infants are regenerated, then which ones are, and when does it happen?

b. If some infants who die are not regenerated, where do they end up and why?

This is enough for now, but discussion may lead to more questions.
 

Maria Billingsley

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Oct 7, 2018
11,348
9,382
65
Martinez
✟1,166,715.00
Country
United States
Gender
Female
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Hello,
I am not a Calvinist just curious on the subject and look forward to their answers.
Thanks for positing!
Be blessed
 
Reactions: tdidymas
Upvote 0

NBB

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Apr 19, 2013
4,042
1,927
46
Uruguay
✟662,087.00
Country
Uruguay
Gender
Male
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
I don't think kids are born again unless like everyone else they seek/accept God.
But, Jesus said, 'let the children come to me, because of them is the kingdom of heaven'
So from that scripture i would say, kids are saved.
 
Upvote 0

eleos1954

God is Love
Site Supporter
Nov 14, 2017
11,064
6,464
Utah
✟860,562.00
Country
United States
Gender
Female
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
Politics
US-Others
"If this is the case, then children too young to know right from wrong really are innocent. What do you think of this? "They get a pass ... this has to be true .... we are responsible for what we know ... not what we do not know.

David testifying that he would be reunited with his dead child after death in 2 Samuel 12:23) support the reasonable belief that infants will go to heaven. The same holds true for those with mental disabilities who cannot comprehend right and wrong. They will be in the 1st resurrection when all the saved will be "regenerated" and taken to heaven
 
Reactions: NBB
Upvote 0

Clare73

Blood-bought
Jun 12, 2012
29,695
7,638
North Carolina
✟359,420.00
Country
United States
Gender
Female
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
Ro 5:17 is pretty clear - "by the trespass of one man, death reigned through that one man, as is

Ro 5:18 - "the result of one trespass was condemnation for all men,"
[which was the pattern (Ro 5:14) for the one righteous act resulting in justification/righteousness for all men (Ro 5:18-19)], as well as

Ro 5:19 - "through the disobedience of the one man, the many were made sinners.

The inheritance of Adam's sinful nature subject to physical death (Ro 5:12-16) is distinct from the imputation of Adam's sin (Ro 5:17) subject to condemnation (Ro:18-19).
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0

tdidymas

Newbie
Aug 28, 2014
2,786
1,131
Houston, TX
✟213,708.00
Gender
Male
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Single
Politics
US-Republican
I know that you think you're clear on this matter, but your response begs questions.
1. Are you advocating for the imputation of Adam's sin to all of mankind? If so, how can you prove scripturally without assuming so?
2. Can you please explain how Rom. 5:17 teaches the imputation of Adam's sin, and is NOT teaching that the sinful nature is inherited? The reason why death reigns is because the sin nature is inherited in all mankind, which causes all people to commit sin, resulting in death (spiritual death). In my mind, it does not prove imputation, and does not prove any guilt in regard to infants. Ref. 7:9 "For I was alive without the law once: but when the commandment came, sin revived, and I died."
3. Why do you think Rom. 5:12-16 is talking about physical death only, since you specify? Can you please explain why it does not include spiritual death? My take on Paul's ambiguity between physical and spiritual death in this passage and a few others is because he is suggesting that physical death is proof of spiritual death, in which spiritual death is the thrust of his argument. The fact that he uses the phrase "justification of life" in v. 18 shows he is speaking of spiritual life vs. spiritual death, since every believer physically dies. In 8:10 he says "And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness," in which righteousness is applied at the time one believes, not at resurrection. But in context, resurrection is as good as done, since righteousness is applied when living at the time of believing. Therefore, 5:12-16 is only mentioning physical death, but the underlying argument refers to spiritual death, IMO. Can you prove my understanding wrong here?

Of course, 5:19 does clearly teach inheritance of sin, IMO.
 
Upvote 0