Application of 2 Timothy 3:16

[GraceSeeker]

I friend of mine recently put this question to a group of us. Because the group isn't a place where one would normally find those who are concerned about inerrancy, I suggested that he was asking the wrong group of people. But, maybe he could find help with his query from this group. Below is his post:

Hey everyone I have a question for you all, please post a link if you know of one that might answer this question. I run into the topic of inerrancy (I hope I spelled that right) of scripture often, occasionally with folks in my congregation and more so in interaction with other Protestants in my community. That is not a doctrine I hold with. Often when this topics comes up people hold up II Timothy 3:16, as the "proof" of it. When I read that it says all scripture is "inspired" (which I agree with and see as crucial to my understanding of the Methodist Quadrilateral) but I see nothing about inerrant. Can someone explain to me how this passage is used to try and "prove" inerrancy and or if other passages are raised up in support. I am not a proof texter (I think), however I would however like to understand where these folks are coming from, if you have any insight I am all ears! Thanks friends!

 

[BBAS 64]

I friend of mine recently put this question to a group of us. Because the group isn't a place where one would normally find those who are concerned about inerrancy, I suggested that he was asking the wrong group of people. But, maybe he could find help with his query from this group. Below is his post:

Good Day,

Recommended reading on the subject:

http://library.dts.edu/Pages/TL/Special/ICBI_1.pdf

That will help him to use the definitions (inerrancy) in the historical light of the passage he his posted.

In Him,

Bill

 

[1watchman]

If one reads KJV and NKJV I believe one can see that God is referring to His immutable Word which does not contradict itself anywhere. If one thinks it does, then one can be sure he/she has misapplied or misinterpreted the portion. In 2 Tim. 3:16 it is assumed that one is reading from a reliable version and in line with "all the counsel of God" and in "...rightly dividing the Word of Truth".

It tells me that the Word which God has given us, and which He will hold us accountable to, is valid and to be followed. God will not hold us accountable to anything He has not given us. His Word is our only authority for the Faith --not the reasoning of men. So, if one doubts it and misapplies it, that one will likely go astray.

As specifically to "inerrancy" I would say prayer to God will show one if it is true as expressed; also, that in a good quality Bible (such as the Old Scofield Edition of KJV) any errors have long been studied through many years and are identified in the margins, with commentaries as to how the error occurred. There are few major errors in the KJV, I see in my many years of study. All Bible versions have errors, for men are not perfect. This is my analysis of the question.

 

[AustinMiles89]

I friend of mine recently put this question to a group of us. Because the group isn't a place where one would normally find those who are concerned about inerrancy, I suggested that he was asking the wrong group of people. But, maybe he could find help with his query from this group. Below is his post:

most people do not know how to truly defend The Word, but this particular teacher has a very no nonsense grasp of the evidence and is worth listening to. at the very least this would help your friend understand the position of those who believe in inerrancy.

youtubexcom/
watch?v=z5y8SpBPwbw

(wont let me post the regular link. just replace the x with . and join the two together)

 

[GraceSeeker]

You mean: THE BIBLE IS TRUE AND ACCURATE Part 1 of 2 - Chuck Missler - YouTube

 

[AustinMiles89]

You mean: THE BIBLE IS TRUE AND ACCURATE Part 1 of 2 - Chuck Missler - YouTube