Now hold on, the NIV surely does attack the deity of Jesus (In Matt. 8:2, 9:18, 15:25, 18:26, 20:20, Mark 5:6, 15:19 the words "worshipped Him" are removed),
Matthew 8:2 KJV And, behold, there came a leper and worshipped him, saying, Lord, if thou wilt, thou canst make me clean. NIV A man with leprosy[
a] came and knelt before him and said, Lord, if you are willing, you can make me clean.
Now before we go any further, please note that kneeling is a sign, an action of worship, so it is not removing worship, only presenting it as an act not a word, but let's look deeper...we go to the Thayer Lexicom in Strong's (KJV) exhaustive concordance and see how the word should be translated...
1) to kiss the hand to (towards) one, in token of reverence
2) among the Orientals, esp. the Persians,
to fall upon the knees and touch the ground with the forehead as an expression of profound reverence
3) in the NT by kneeling or prostration to do homage (to one) or make obeisance, whether in order to express respect or to make supplication
a) used of homage shown to men and beings of superior rank
1) to the Jewish high priests
2) to God
3) to Christ
4) to heavenly beings
5) to demons
Notice the highlight... Notice that kneeling is not only an appropriate word translation (according to Strong's KJV resources but is more descriptive of the type of worship offered. IOW's a better translation of the "feeling and actions" of the man.
Let's try again...Matthew 9:18 NIV 18 While he was saying this, a synagogue leader came and knelt before him and said, My daughter has just died. But come and put your hand on her, and she will live.
KJV 18While he spake these things unto them, behold, there came a certain ruler, and worshipped him, saying, My daughter is even now dead: but come and lay thy hand upon her, and she shall live.
and strongs lexicon, which is how we primarily know the intended meaning of the Hebrew or Greek translationally....what do you know, the same translational issue and if we look carefully, none of the definitions provided say worship is an appropriate definition choice. IOW's this evidence you provide shows the NIV to be superior by the the strong's KJV standard.
Oh well, let's move on instead of continuing to show the same KJV flaw time and time again, your next claim....remember, your claim is that the NIV questions the deity of Christ, in the examples you give, we see exactly the opposite to be true, thus slander of a translation that proclaims the deity of Christ.
does not the "blood" atonement (Colossians 1:14),
the blood atonement in Colossians 1:14...kjv...14In whom we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins:
niv...14 in whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins.
Now we know the early manuscripts did not have verse divisions, so let's check context and see if blood is in the complete sentence, not just an out of context fragment....13 For he has rescued us from the dominion of darkness and brought us into the kingdom of the Son he loves, 14 in whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins.
Notice the context is Jesus of whom there is no question of His blood sacrifice as seen in vs. 20 20 and through him to reconcile to himself all things, whether things on earth or things in heaven, by making peace through his
blood, shed on the cross.
Notice the highlighted word...IOW's the best we can say here is that the KJV gives more detail in vs. 14...now I have no problem with the claim and have made it myself many times, that some versions are better expressed on some verses than others, and this seems to be one of those times, but it is a far cry from your claim that the NIV does not accept the blood atonement, vs. 20 is about that very thing, the blood atonement...
so far you slandered the NIV 2 out of 2 times...shall we shoot for 3...virgin birth..Matthew 1:22-24...both say virgin and for sake of space, we'll leave it at 3 for 3 with that one passage alone...
Heck, the NIV calls Joseph Jesus's "father" which he certainly is NOT!
be careful here, God adopted me, that makes Him my Father even though He is not my father...In other words, Joseph was Jesus father and God was His Father....none the less...the NIV gospels are full of references to God being Jesus Father, in fact, there are so many references, there is no room for them all here.
In the NIV you can't even read who killed Goliath.
I really don't know what you are referring to here, when I read the story I read in the NIV that God did through David...when I read it in the KJV, I read that God did through David...
(Read 2 Samuel 20:19)
KJV 19I am one of them that are peaceable and faithful in Israel: thou seekest to destroy a city and a mother in Israel: why wilt thou swallow up the inheritance of the LORD?
NIV..19 We are the peaceful and faithful in Israel. You are trying to destroy a city that is a mother in Israel. Why do you want to swallow up the LORDs inheritance?
Was it Elhanan son of Jaare-Oregim the Bethlehemite, or David the son of Jesse??
in II Samuel 20:19 neither the NIV or the KJV specifies....
look, this is really pretty petty and pathetic, you make a claim you can't evidence and I spend my time showing you the sin of slander instead of sharing the good news of the gospel...that is really the problem with those who slander translations because they prefer one over the other...attention is drawn onto the problems, rather than onto the gospel of the Lord Jesus Christ. It is clear, when we look at the scriptures (both) that both are proclaiming the gospel, the complete gospel, the deity, blood atonement, virgin birth gospel...to proclaim otherwise is slander and sinful. So, let's cut to the chase, end the argument once and for all, and get back to the gospel that sets people free.
Put forth your best argument, your most conclusive evidence that the NIV dismisses the deity, blood atonement, virgin birth, if the evidence holds up, I will repent and join your crusade against the NIV, if not, you will face your own judgment from God as to why you slandered a translation that proclaims the same gospel, and points people to the same Christ.