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NotreDame

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We are discussing the U.S. Supreme Court decision and my claim is in regards to the U.S. Supreme Court decision. This thread is not about the lower court decisions, so trying to refute my argument about a case nobody in this thread was ever discussing, until you interjected with it, is a pathetic exercise of refutation.

Furthermore, you can cite the number of people in disagreement with my opinion, judge, lawyer, layperson, it doesn't matter, because the number of people in disagreement with a position indicates nothing about the strength of the opinion, whether the opinion is true, likely true, accurate, or correct. So you can dispense with this argument by popularity.
 
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Maren

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Except that you made a claim that wasn't covered by the Supreme Court decision. So it is a bit disingenuous that you are claiming that I can't disagree because it wasn't covered by the Supreme Court decision.

But maybe I'm wrong and you can show me where the decision in Windsor said, "The law itself does not interfere with any state power, none, and the motivation for the law does not change this fact."
 
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NotreDame

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Actually, I did make a claim covered by the U.S. Supreme Court decision. J. Kennedy's decision is inundated with references, lines, sentences, and paragraphs describing Congress' conduct as one traditionally of "state power". His entire opinion is a federalism opinion tied to "equal protection principles" in the 5th Amendment Due Process Clause.

So, you need to get your facts straight before accusing me of being "disingenuous" because you do not know what you are talking about. I suggest you read the case because my comment is absolutely addressed by J. Kennedy's majority opinion.

Furthermore, I didn't say you couldn't disagree. I said it was rather pathetic to refute my comments by referencing and citing to cases which were not the subject of this thread until you referenced them. This exchange between you and I is quickly devolving, regrettably, into one of having to correct every error and mistake you make in a post.

But maybe I'm wrong and you can show me where the decision in Windsor said, "The law itself does not interfere with any state power, none, and the motivation for the law does not change this fact."

This makes no sense. Why would I do such a thing when my criticism of the majority opinion is DOMA section 3 doesn't interfere federalism, states' rights, or state authority to define marriage? It is rather conspicuous the majority decision makes the assertion DOMA section 3 does interfere with federalism and state authority to define marriage and I am asserting it doesn't!

Furthermore, upon careful reflection, my comment was made in regards to a poster's argument and not so much the decision itself. So it is my fault for allowing you to drag me into an argument about the Court's opinion, or any court's opinion, when my comment was not made in regards to necessarily any court decision but a poster's own argument.
 
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