- Feb 9, 2018
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The entire second portion of 1st Timothy 2 is probably one of the most controversial passages of the entire New Testament, for many understandable reasons. But as I was reading it today, this particular verse stood out to me as... well, odd to say the least. Upon first glance, it seems to be theologically questionable.
The first question to pop to mind is, has Paul (or the pastoral author) not read the Genesis account thoroughly before writing this? Surely Adam -was- deceived, or else he would not have eaten the fruit from Eve, no? Note that the author does bring up order in the previous verse, but he only brings it up in context of the order of creation, and fails to acknowledge the order of the eating of the fruit (he also neglects to bring up how headship was not officially established until/as a result of the fall of man). As a result of all this, it seems as though the author is implying that “it’s all Eve’s fault” and is trying to absolve Adam, thus men, from blame. But why?
Can anyone share some insight into this?
The first question to pop to mind is, has Paul (or the pastoral author) not read the Genesis account thoroughly before writing this? Surely Adam -was- deceived, or else he would not have eaten the fruit from Eve, no? Note that the author does bring up order in the previous verse, but he only brings it up in context of the order of creation, and fails to acknowledge the order of the eating of the fruit (he also neglects to bring up how headship was not officially established until/as a result of the fall of man). As a result of all this, it seems as though the author is implying that “it’s all Eve’s fault” and is trying to absolve Adam, thus men, from blame. But why?
Can anyone share some insight into this?