Itani
Active Member
Here is an interesting question for all anti-gay Christians:
Since there is no word in neither Greek nor Hebrew for the term "homosexual" (that is, homosexual in the sense that we think of it today being two people of the same gender in a loving, committed, emotional, and sexual relationship). In what way can it be condemned by the Bible if not even the concept existed in the literature? How can that which is not stated be condemned?
Paul, knowing Hebrew, fully intended to tell his Roman and Corinthian audiences that those who practiced sex with the same gender were abusing something that God designed, so they could do it for the purpose of their sinful pleasures.
You know, in India, there are people who are in a "loving, comitted, emotional, and sexual relationship" with their pet animals that leads them to get married with them. Perhaps we should change the church to allow them to do those things to, right, since it is popular over there with those villages.
No where in the bible does it say we can't do that, except for Moses Book of the Law and Jesus and Paul indications that we shouldn't live by the lusts of the flesh, as well as their indications that sex outside of marrage is wrong.
So, there you have it.
Just because homosexuals are in a "loving, comitted, emotional and sexual relationship" doesn't mean it is sinless and right.
2000 years of bible isn't going to change so it can please those who want to follow in the ways of the Flesh.
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