Since the word "Torah" means "a teaching", yes it could be included in the term. I merely referred to it in two different parts, you have a problem with that? I'll give it to you in something you can understand then...
The Torah actually has two sections, the Torah Shebiksav (the Written Torah) and the Torah Shebal Peh (the Oral Torah).
The Torah Shebiksav has three parts, the first of which is callled the Torah.
Torah: This is the part that was given directly to Moshe Rabbeinu at Mount Sinai by God. It is made up of five books. Each book is called a Chumash.
Neviim (Prophets), the second part, is made up of 19 books from the book of Joshua to the book of Malachi
Kesuvim (Writings) is the third part and contains the remainder of what is refered to in English as the Old Testament.
All three parts...Torah, Nevi'im, and Kesuvim are what is specifically called the Tanakh or Torah Shebiksav.
I said Tanakh and then included the New Testament to avoid any confusion. (Your Quran refers to New Testament Scripture as having authority as well) Your lack of knowledge caused confusion, when I thought that you, above all, should know that, and wouldn't be an issue. Apparently I was wrong and you don't know as much as you claim to. Torah means teachings which refers to all scripture.
2:136 Say ye: "We believe in Allah, and the revelation given to us, and to Abraham, Isma'il, Isaac, Jacob, and the Tribes, and that given to Moses and Jesus, and that given to (all) prophets from their Lord: We make no difference between one and another of them: And we bow to Allah (in Islam)."
My lack of knowledge? Let's not get into ad-homenin attacks here. Let's stay on topic. I know very well the Injeel is described in the Qur'an, but you stated the Torah includes the New Testament which is Incorrect. The Injeel is listed serpeately (And also is not the New Testament, but this is an issue I'll discuss in detail later on).
Torah means "Teachings", so what? The Torah doesn't refer to ALL THE SCRIPTURES COLLECTIVELY! You are making irrational conclusions, Jesus's teachings and David's are mentioned seperately. Infact the Torah is mentioned along side the Injeel in several occasions. Therefore your conclusion is entire wild and incorrect.

LoL, your strongest is pretty weak.
Unbelievable. I'm speakless at your lack of understanding for what I've stated
I have included it, and it isn't an assumption, as I have stated. Torah can refer to both the first five books, and the Tanakh...and as you have pointed out...even the New Testament, by definition of the word. What your trying to do is use that variance to say that is only refers to certain books that you can choose personally, rather than the complete text that you are saying is corrupt, even though the Quran gives authority to all the scriptures. My argument is that the Quran refers the the whole BIBLE ( is that a better word for you to understand?), while you are wanting to pick and choose. The pick and choose is what makes your "assumption 1" completely invalid, as I've stated. Understand now?
We need to slow down. You are getting ahead of yourself and I haven't even posted my complete argument. I'm just commenting here and there and you continue to repeat yourself.
Wrong. My argument is based on the fact that the writings in the Quran state equality with the Bible. You are saying that the Bible is corrupt (which is contradictory to the writings you claim to follow) with no literature in the Quran to back it up in objective interpretation. I also say that if you provide such verses that it will only show an internal contradiction. As a result, I'm saying that your faith that the Quran is inerrant, is hypocritical. YOU are the one with the faith based arguments or dont you realize that?
On the fact eh? I know that this "Fact" is false. What does that say about your argument? You'll just have to wait till I'm finished because this is getting in my opinion alittle silly and drawn out when infact the solution is rather easily seen.
LOL Oh Puullleeeaassee.
The Bible was around much longer than the Quran. The authors of the Quran had no doubt read the Bible...and you mean to tell me that it is not logical or reasonable that the Bible influenced the writings? Oh, I see, God must have gave him the writings without ever being influenced by the Bible...yes, that is much more logical.
Snowing, and being cold outside is a false comparison to what we are discussing. Here's a better one.
A - It's snowed outside.
B - There is a snowman in my yard.
------------
Therefore the snow was used to make a snowman.
SIMPLE logic.
It's all a matter of what identification you give the variables. You attempt to cite logic while defying it with faith.You think an invisible being told the authors what to write.
Nice baseless arguments. Infact I find it rather funny that you are using a common illogic (Fallacy of affirming the consequent) and calling it simple logic. This shows just how much you know about logic. I'm not sure whether I should be worried or amused.

I think my point has been made. There is no exclusivity to your argument. You make several baseless assumptions that are not necessarily true. Thus your conclusion is illogical.
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