Here is a question that I have wondered about for many years.........
When the author of the book of 2 Timothy wrote:
"All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works."
in 2 Timothy 3:16+17, did he consider what he was writing to be Scripture??
Did the writer see himself as actually writing "holy scripture" or was he referring to the scriptures of what we now refer to as the "Old Testament"??
When the author of the book of 2 Timothy wrote:
"All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works."
in 2 Timothy 3:16+17, did he consider what he was writing to be Scripture??
Did the writer see himself as actually writing "holy scripture" or was he referring to the scriptures of what we now refer to as the "Old Testament"??