Deut 4:2 -
Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminish [ought] from it, that ye may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you
Deut 12:32 -
What thing soever I command you, observe to do it: thou shalt not add thereto, nor diminish from it.
Prov 30:5-6
Every word of God [is] pure: he [is] a shield unto them that put their trust in him. Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar.
Most, including myself, interpret this as the bible saying that it is the word. You shall not add to it, or omit any part of it. However, isn't that exactly what the New Testament is -- an expansion or addition to the Old Testament? I suppose the real question I am asking here is: What about the New Testament gives it immunity to the rule set by Deut 4:2? What is the qualifier that allows it (NT) to append itself to the OT?
The reason I am asking is because I was having a conversation wit my wife (a Christian) and she found herself not only unable to answer, but beginning to get frustrated with me. Of course I just shut my mouth before I was sent to the dog house (hehe).
I had to stop because when I brought up the Mormon faith (of which she is not), and how they consider the Book of Mormon is a further addition to the bible, thats where she began to get frustrated with me.
Having read most of the bible myself (as an ex-Lutheran), I don't recall any mention of Deut 4:2 in the New Testament, only that it attempts to justify itself by fulfilling the prophecy of Christ. As far as I know, the Book of Mormon also contains similar form of self-justification. So the question I was asking her was: "If the New Testament can justify itself as an addition to the Old Testament, why would one have to stop there and not move on to the Book of Mormon, also containing it's own self justification?"
"Because Jesus being born, crucified, etc all really happened." she tried to explain. Meaning, the New Testament says itself is real, so it is.
But the Book of Mormon, according to itself, also really happened...
What right would any non-Mormon Christian have, then, to criticize the beliefs of a Mormon, even jokingly, when their addition to the bible is just as self-justifies as the NT? (rhetorical question, don't worry about this one)
I do notice, also, that the New Testament put's it's own similar stipulation in the book of Revelations -- saying that adding or removing anything from the bible will bring plagues upon themselves or some such. Now, if the Book of Mormon is wrong because it's in violation of the book of Revelation, then how is it different than Revelation being in violation of Deuteronomy and Proverbs?
Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminish [ought] from it, that ye may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you
Deut 12:32 -
What thing soever I command you, observe to do it: thou shalt not add thereto, nor diminish from it.
Prov 30:5-6
Every word of God [is] pure: he [is] a shield unto them that put their trust in him. Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar.
Most, including myself, interpret this as the bible saying that it is the word. You shall not add to it, or omit any part of it. However, isn't that exactly what the New Testament is -- an expansion or addition to the Old Testament? I suppose the real question I am asking here is: What about the New Testament gives it immunity to the rule set by Deut 4:2? What is the qualifier that allows it (NT) to append itself to the OT?
The reason I am asking is because I was having a conversation wit my wife (a Christian) and she found herself not only unable to answer, but beginning to get frustrated with me. Of course I just shut my mouth before I was sent to the dog house (hehe).
I had to stop because when I brought up the Mormon faith (of which she is not), and how they consider the Book of Mormon is a further addition to the bible, thats where she began to get frustrated with me.
Having read most of the bible myself (as an ex-Lutheran), I don't recall any mention of Deut 4:2 in the New Testament, only that it attempts to justify itself by fulfilling the prophecy of Christ. As far as I know, the Book of Mormon also contains similar form of self-justification. So the question I was asking her was: "If the New Testament can justify itself as an addition to the Old Testament, why would one have to stop there and not move on to the Book of Mormon, also containing it's own self justification?"
"Because Jesus being born, crucified, etc all really happened." she tried to explain. Meaning, the New Testament says itself is real, so it is.
But the Book of Mormon, according to itself, also really happened...
What right would any non-Mormon Christian have, then, to criticize the beliefs of a Mormon, even jokingly, when their addition to the bible is just as self-justifies as the NT? (rhetorical question, don't worry about this one)
I do notice, also, that the New Testament put's it's own similar stipulation in the book of Revelations -- saying that adding or removing anything from the bible will bring plagues upon themselves or some such. Now, if the Book of Mormon is wrong because it's in violation of the book of Revelation, then how is it different than Revelation being in violation of Deuteronomy and Proverbs?