Ben Borg Again said:
god and the bible is not pro-life
Ex 21: 22-25
paraphraseing:
If 2 men are fighting and injure a prego woman in the process, if she miscarries then the man is to pay a monetary fine for the dead fetus.
If the woman is injured, they shall injure the man in the same way ( eye for an eye)
If the woman dies, the man shall be executed.
Two completely different standards to the VALUE of a fetuses life and the woman.
The dead fetus is worth some money or a few livestock, whatever the judeges and husband agree too,
While the womans death is capital punishment.
Therefore GOd ( who supposedly wrote this passage) does not consider killing a fetus as murder.
I guess it really depends on who does the paraphrasing, doesn't it?
Exodus Chap. 21 (KJV)
"22If men strive, and hurt a woman with child, so that her fruit depart from her, and yet no mischief follow: he shall be surely punished, according as the woman's husband will lay upon him; and he shall pay as the judges determine.
23And if any mischief follow, then thou shalt give life for life,
24Eye for eye, tooth for tooth, hand for hand, foot for foot,
25Burning for burning, wound for wound, stripe for stripe."
(NIV)
22 "If men who are fighting hit a pregnant woman and she gives birth prematurely [a] but there is no serious injury, the offender must be fined whatever the woman's husband demands and the court allows. 23 But if there is serious injury, you are to take life for life, 24 eye for eye, tooth for tooth, hand for hand, foot for foot, 25 burn for burn, wound for wound, bruise for bruise."
Pemeture birth isn't the same as death of the child. Read the same passages and realize that it speaks of harm, or serious injury, done to the
child as well as the mother. So, this considered, if the life of the child is taken, the life of the perpetrator is payment for the transgression. If there is harm to neither wife nor child, even though there is a premeture birth,
then the husband and the court decide what the fine should be.
P.S.
By the by, the word "fetus" was Latin for or "offspring" (some think it might be Greek in origin, but I'm not Greek nor have I done an exhaustive Greek word study- so I'll just take the word of those who have, and give you the definite answer "maybe" as it might actually still be under debate... or not.
"An excellent example of the confusion resulting from this borrowing of words from various languages is the word foetus / fetus. It never was Greek, according to the Oxford team. It always was Latin: fetus, a noun of the fourth (count them) declension." )
Nowadays the anti-life rights activists like to use it to delineate a difference between "baby" and "fetus". I.E. "It's not a baby, it's a fetus." Well according to the latin usage- where we most directly get our word from- it was offspring. According to the latin I could still be called the "fetus" of my parents. Remember that the previous usage of where we get the word from would, if allowed into the forray, erase the supposed "line of demarkation" which might separate "fetus" and "baby" (and teenager and adult -for that matter).