Not at all self-contradictory. It can be true that I have no choice but to behave as I do while at the same time being true that I also have no choice but to think that I am acting freely. Who was it who said, "We have to believe in free will--we have no choice?"
Besides, it may be the case that I have no choice but to act against the murderer.
My reasons were 1) revenge--the satisfaction I get personally from hurting someone who hurt someone I care about; and 2) social improvement-- providing a deterrent which may change the actions of some others who would murder (and remember: this does not imply, necessarily, free will on the part of the murderer, as providing knowledge that murderers will experience retaliation is simply changing the inputs that go into their 'programming,' if you will). I fail to see how the murderer's responsiblity, or lack thereof, is relevant to these two reasons for my action.
A rancher may not hold a wolf to be 'responsible' for killing and eating a lamb---seeing it entirely as a matter of the wolf's instinct, its programming; but the rancher will nonetheless kill it if he can; and the wolf, shot at but missed, may still take a lesson from the experience and thereafter perhaps find other prey.
My understanding of free will is the notion that an entity has some ability to determine its actions both independent of any external influence AND in a way providing for some sort of 'interior control' of its actions which exists apart from its own *internal* influences (biological and social, etc.) .
This 'interior control' has never been very well defined or explained to me; it is just asserted. I have seen free will described as existing in a sort of poorly defined 'elsewhere', sort of like the soul. I guess it's in the same place, now that I think about it.
How about you? How do
you define free will? I've asked before, I think.
You haven't yet shown an instance where it is. The breathing example was a poor one, because involuntary and voluntary breathing are two distinct, but superimposed, processes; so one says nothing about the other, really. Why don't you try another example?
I don't understand what you are saying here; the syntax is...garbled. Please restate. What's easy to see? "My" God? What are you talking about?
Obviously, people are not inanimate objects, so I am not sure what you mean. How does my asking you to prove the existence of the soul prove anything?
I believe that, in this discussion, I have entertained your notions of reality AT LEAST as fully as you've entertained mine. So who needs to open his box, as it were?
As far as I recall, I conceded only that I am not formally schooled in philosophy, then asked you to restate your 'necessity does not obviate choice' assertion, and to provide a practical example of its validity. You still haven't done so--your breathing attempt was faulty, for the reasons I have explained. Twice now.
The difference is that I can prove you wrong--just let me know where you are and give me a 2 x 4. Whereas...well, you know where I'm going with that, I'm sure.
I'd like to hear some of these conclusions. Do you believe in eternal torment or spirtual annhilation for the unsaved?
I have read the Bible, the Oxford New English Bible in fact, but it was a long time ago, in my teens. Care to refresh my memory?
The question was:
I threw in the part about the Trinity, too, because it is in my mind the same sort of conceptionthe idea that some entity can be simultaneously omnipotent/omniscient AND limited to a mortals existence and perspectives (there is, of course, the third part of the trinity, but it isnt really relevant to this discussion, is it?)
OK, Ill take a two-minute stab at this question which, so far as I know, hasnt been settled after literal centuries of hashing about by philosophers and theologians. But because its such a broad and deep question, Ill limit my response here to its original context, your assertion of Hell as a place defined by Gods absence. You will recall that my response to this conception was to paraphrase, if God is everywhere, then how can He be absent from Hell?
OK, lets for the sake of argument assume youre right and Hell is the defined by Gods absence. Perhaps there is a God of the Apologists, perhaps there is a Hell. (I have never asserted that there are not such things, only that I find their existence highly unlikely).
How do we know anything about Hell? From the Bible? Inspired by God? But by your definition of Hell, God has removed Himself from it, right? So how does He know? How
can He know? Does omniscience mean knowing everything, even things one doesnt or cant know? Does omipotence involve being where one isnt? How does that even make any sense at all?
It seems to me that our understanding, our very ability to understand, these questions concerned with infinities or existence outside of our reality (omnisicience, omnipotence, omni- or extra-temporality, etc. ) are by their very scope ultimately incomprehensible to us, and so for us to accept
any assertions about them amount to something very like special pleading: that is to say, what one is essentially doing when he accepts such concepts as the existence of the God of the Apologists is saying, normally we
couldnt really know anything about these things, but because its God and we have His word, we have to accept it, even though we cant, really, understand it.
Can you give me one of your simplest arguments for the existence of God? I think Id find some sort of special pleading at its heart; but I could be wrong. Try me.
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