Montalban
Well-Known Member
Historically that's not yet shown. And, your argument, is simply based on the assumption that the OP is correct. It's circular; No one before Moses could have been called Pharaoh, so when this Pharaoh is placed before Lot in order, he's not a Pharaoh before Lot.There is no Pharoah before the Pharoah.
Whereas I argue that there were Pharaoh's BEFORE Moses based on
a) the time-line of the Koran is clear here in the order it gives these names.
and
b) the fact that historically, it's not inaccurate to refer to earlier kings of Egypt as Pharaoh.
Whilst it is true that the Pharaoh AT THE TIME OF JOSEPH is simply called 'king' it is not incorrect to refer to Pharaoh's before Moses' day as Pharaoh (as evidenced by Peaceful Soul's citation)
How you see a list going A-B-C-D-E-F as A-C-D-E-F-B is entirely up to you
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