Here is quote from an excellent web page that is both clear and straight to the point......
B. A Critical Apology
What about election? All who believe the Bible believe in election, either conditional or unconditional. Pelagianism and Arminianism teach a conditional election, while Calvinism teaches an unconditional election. What does the Bible teach? Which of the following is Scriptural?
God elected me because I first elected to believe. He chose me because I first chose Him;
OR
I chose God because He first chose me. He elected me because I could not save myself.
Granted, the believer chooses God, and the believer is chosen of God. The question is, which was the first choice? Which choice resulted from the other? Which was the cause and which the effect? Is it true that "God is careful to elect only those whom He foresees will elect themselves?" Or has God sovereignly chosen his people according to His own will and pleasure?
According to scripture, election is unconditional. That is, God chose apart from setting forth any conditions to be met. But this was not done arbitrarily. There are at least three wise reasons why God elected unconditionally.
1. Because of what God knew (Psalm 14)
[size=-1]The Lord looked down from heaven upon the children of men to see if there were any that did understand and seek God (v. 2).[/size]
[size=-1]They are all gone aside, they are all together become filthy; there is none that doeth good, no, not one (v. 3).[/size]
The Lord knew from all eternity that men, if left alone, would never choose him, or even seek him. If any were to be spared He had to choose them. The Apostle Paul quoted this Psalm in Romans 3, when revealing the sinfulness of men.
- Again, in I Corinthians 2:14, Paul wrote:
[size=-1]But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.[/size]
According to this verse, man is in such unbelief that the things of God are to him utter foolishness, i.e., "they are foolishness unto him." Further, man is spiritually dead and thus cannot understand, i.e., "they must be spiritually discerned," or understood.
2. Because of God's great love and mercy.
[size=-1]I have loved thee with an everlasting love; therefore, with loving kindness have I drawn thee (Jer. 31:3).[/size]
[size=-1]No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him; and I will raise him up at the last day (John 6:44, 45).[/size]
Knowing the condition of man, and knowing what man would do in time, the Lord therefore knew that man could not and would not meet any conditions set forth. In sovereign mercy he chose to set his love upon man unconditionally. There was no other way for any person to be saved.
http://www.soundofgrace.com/dec97/frnoldg.htm
So too, God foreKNEW us. A certain commentator (was it John MacArthur?) has said that in this contex, the verb should be more properly translated "foreloved".
