• Starting today August 7th, 2024, in order to post in the Married Couples, Courting Couples, or Singles forums, you will not be allowed to post if you have your Marital status designated as private. Announcements will be made in the respective forums as well but please note that if yours is currently listed as Private, you will need to submit a ticket in the Support Area to have yours changed.

A re-examination of nothing

Status
Not open for further replies.

OllieFranz

Senior Member
Jul 2, 2007
5,328
351
✟31,048.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Private
The second reason the argument doesn't work is that when Paul says in verse 27b, "Their women exchanged the natural function for that which is unnatural," the Greek phrase for "that which is unnatural" (ten para phusin) is a stock phrase in Greek ethical literature of the time for homosexual behavior per se, not for homosexual behavior among heterosexuals - as though that's what made it unnatural.*

Yes it was a stock phrase in ethical literature, meaning "that which ought not be done," but it does not exclusively, or even primarily, refer to homosexuality.

And whether one makes the observation in earnest or in jest, one certainly should not fail to observe that when male unites with female for procreation the pleasure experienced is held to be due to nature, but contrary to nature when male mates with male or female with female, and that those first guilty of such enormities were impelled by their slavery to pleasure.
~~Laws, (1.636c) Plato

In the original, from which Paul is quoting, Plato makes it clear that it is Eros - unbridled passion -- which is "against nature," and that he only chose a homosexual example as a jest on his host, because he is visiting Crete and Cretans had a reputation for homosexual excess which made them the butt of such jokes. Plato goes on to emphasize that the problem is excess and lack of control.

Paul also emphasizes that the sin is Eros by rephrasing the passage slightly, in order to add the five component sins that make up Eros: epithymia, pathos, ekkaio, orexis, and plane.

Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness through the lusts (epithymia) of their own hearts, to dishonour their own bodies between themselves: 25. Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen. 26. For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections (pathos): for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: 27. And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned (ekkaio) in their lust (orexis) one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error (plane) which was meet.
~~Romans 1:24-27
 
Upvote 0

savedandhappy1

Senior Veteran
Oct 27, 2006
1,831
153
Kansas
✟26,444.00
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
Yes it was a stock phrase in ethical literature, meaning "that which ought not be done," but it does not exclusively, or even primarily, refer to homosexuality.

Quote:
And whether one makes the observation in earnest or in jest, one certainly should not fail to observe that when male unites with female for procreation the pleasure experienced is held to be due to nature, but contrary to nature when male mates with male or female with female, and that those first guilty of such enormities were impelled by their slavery to pleasure.
~~Laws, (1.636c) Plato

In the original, from which Paul is quoting, Plato makes it clear that it is Eros - unbridled passion -- which is "against nature," and that he only chose a homosexual example as a jest on his host, because he is visiting Crete and Cretans had a reputation for homosexual excess which made them the butt of such jokes. Plato goes on to emphasize that the problem is excess and lack of control.

Paul also emphasizes that the sin is Eros by rephrasing the passage slightly, in order to add the five component sins that make up Eros: epithymia, pathos, ekkaio, orexis, and plane.


You can read your own quote from Plato, and get that out of it?

Let's see what he said. He said that the passions that a man and a woman have when procreating are due to nature, and that contrary to nature (which is just what the Bible says homosexuality also) the passions and due to them wanting pleasure. Becoming slaves to that pleasure.

Yep it makes it clear that unbridled passion between homosexuals is against nature, meaning that they shouldn't be doing things which are against nature.

So are you saying that homosexuals can love eachother as long as they don't have sex or as long as they don't have pleasure while they are having sex? (Since it is against nature)
 
  • Like
Reactions: Floatingaxe
Upvote 0

OllieFranz

Senior Member
Jul 2, 2007
5,328
351
✟31,048.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Private
You can read your own quote from Plato, and get that out of it?

Since I only posted the one line Paul quoted, and summarized Plato's position, I'll concede that this is a fair question. I did not give you enough to judge for yourself.

So Let me post a little more of what Plato wrote. I will still only post a minimal amount and have to explain around it, though. You can download and read the entire dialogue for free thanks to the Gutenberg Project.

The book is written as a dialogue, a conversation among three philosophers, an unnamed Athenian (Plato's main character - generally supposed to be Socrates, but not named so because Socrates was known never to have visited Crete), Megillus (a Lacedaemonian from Sparta), and their host, Cleinias (a cretan) as they walk from Cleinias' house to the temple of Zeus in Crete. The Athenian's lesson is punctuated with questions and comments by the other two, but I am only quoting two sections of the Athenian's words. (Note this is a different translation than I posted earlier, so I'm indicating the previously quoted line in blue. The bolded sections will be discussed below)
Whether such matters are to be regarded jestingly or seriously, I think that the pleasure is to be deemed natural which arises out of the intercourse between men and women; but that the intercourse of men with men, or of women with women, is contrary to nature, and that the bold attempt was originally due to unbridled lust. The Cretans are always accused of having invented the story of Ganymede and Zeus because they wanted to justify themselves in the enjoyment of unnatural pleasures by the practice of the god whom they believe to have been their lawgiver.

Leaving the story, we may observe that any speculation about laws turns almost entirely on pleasure and pain, both in states and in individuals: these are two fountains which nature lets flow, and he who draws from them where and when, and as much as he ought, is happy; and this holds of men and animals--of individuals as well as states; and he who indulges in them ignorantly and at the wrong time, is the reverse of happy.
......
Nay, my good friend, do not say that; there have been, as there always will be, flights and pursuits of which no account can be given, and therefore we cannot say that victory or defeat in battle affords more than
a doubtful proof of the goodness or badness of institutions. For when the greater states conquer and enslave the lesser, as the Syracusans have done the Locrians, who appear to be the best-governed people in their part of the world, or as the Athenians have done the Ceans (and there are ten thousand other instances of the same sort of thing), all this is not to the point; let us endeavour rather to form a conclusion about each
institution in itself and say nothing, at present, of victories and defeats. Let us only say that such and such a custom is honourable, and another not.
And first permit me to tell you how good and bad are to be estimated in reference to these very matters.

In the first paragraph, at the beginning of the quoted line, the Athenian indicates that he is about to make a little joke (at Clienias' expense, it turns out) in his choice of example. The joke, which immediately follows the example, is in the "fact" that Cretans only worship Zeus because they can use his relationship with Ganymede to justify prolonging the erastes/eromenos relationship themselves, and the athenian's point is that this, whether it is true or just a racial stereotype, is exactly the kind of overdoiing things that the Athenian is talking about.

In the second paragraph we see how the Athenian is using the phrase "against nature." He is not considering the Law as a scientific experiment, to see if this law makes Athens physically stronger than Ceos or that law allows Syracuse to conquer Locria. He is not talking about nature in that sense; he is using the phrase to indicate a moral failing. Almost exactly as was indicated in the sermon by John Piper you quoted.

Let's see what he said. He said that the passions that a man and a woman have when procreating are due to nature, and that contrary to nature (which is just what the Bible says homosexuality also) the passions and due to them wanting pleasure. Becoming slaves to that pleasure.

First, of course it is "just what the Bible says, too" Paul is quoting this passage. "Natural" and "against nature" do not appear anywhere in the Old Testament. It is not a Hebrew concept at all. Paul borrows it from the Greeks.

And yes, it is the pleasure, and the slavery (addiction) that the Athenian calls para physis. Paul, who does not want to quote the entire chapter of Laws, when the one line was all he needed, still wanted to make sure that the readers understood that he knew that the example condemns wantonness, and not mere homosexuality, so he rephrased it to include the five key words I mentioned in my last post.

Yep it makes it clear that unbridled passion between homosexuals is against nature, meaning that they shouldn't be doing things which are against nature.

According to Plato, unbridled passion is para physis for anyone. The example he chose to illustrate the point was homosexual for other reasons. But that is correct.

If there were other, more clear teaching against homosexuality in the Bible, then (even though Plato didn't condemn homosexuality in the ooriginal) we could still use Romans 1:26-27 against homosexuality, too. However every other verse used to teach against homosexuality shows greater weaknesses than this verse when used that way.

So are you saying that homosexuals can love eachother as long as they don't have sex or as long as they don't have pleasure while they are having sex? (Since it is against nature)

Close but no cigar, on two counts. It is not what "I" am saying, but what what the people to whom Paul was writing would recognize as Plato's point. And Plato's point is not that one should not have sex, or that one should not enjoy having sex.

It is that Man is more than just an animal, and his Reason should control his instincts. Having sex (or indulging in any pleasure) simply because it is pleasurable is a moral weakness which can lead to the slavery of addiction. It is an error which carries the seed of it's own recompense.

When it came to sex specifically, the consensus was that because it is so pleasurable, it was important that it only be indulged in for good reasons. You had sex with a wife to sire heirs. You had sex with a Temple prostitute to worship the goddess. You had sex with a professional party hostess because it was part of party experience. You had sex with your eromenos to teach him what sex was. But you did not get carried away.

These were the rules for a society that is not our society. Many of these permitted uses of sex we know to be sinful*. But it is the world which the Roman Church was in but not of. They would have known that this is why the actions in verses 24-27 were labelled para physis, "against nature."

In 1 Corinthians 7, we learn God's solution to the danger of "burning with passion": channel the urges into a loving, married relationship.

*
 
  • Like
Reactions: tulc
Upvote 0

davedjy

Well-Known Member
Dec 11, 2006
2,184
1,080
Southern California
✟33,592.00
Gender
Male
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Single
Politics
US-Libertarian
No, it is a perfectly normal "notion". It is faulty to think that the faulty inclination is normal!

Isaiah 5:20
What sorrow for those who say
that evil is good and good is evil,
that dark is light and light is dark,
that bitter is sweet and sweet is bitter.
It's a baseless assumption. If I want to go one step further to the level you go, it has an agenda.

There's no proof that the inclination is "faulty" besides reading into the passage with your biases.
 
Upvote 0

Floatingaxe

Well-Known Member
Apr 14, 2007
14,757
877
73
Ontario, Canada
✟22,726.00
Faith
Word of Faith
Marital Status
Married
Politics
CA-Conservatives
It's a baseless assumption. If I want to go one step further to the level you go, it has an agenda.

There's no proof that the inclination is "faulty" besides reading into the passage with your biases.

You are just ignoring the Lord. His word is plain. If I even had a bias, it is identical to that of God.
 
Upvote 0

davedjy

Well-Known Member
Dec 11, 2006
2,184
1,080
Southern California
✟33,592.00
Gender
Male
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Single
Politics
US-Libertarian
You can read your own quote from Plato, and get that out of it?

Let's see what he said. He said that the passions that a man and a woman have when procreating are due to nature, and that contrary to nature (which is just what the Bible says homosexuality also) the passions and due to them wanting pleasure. Becoming slaves to that pleasure.

Yep it makes it clear that unbridled passion between homosexuals is against nature, meaning that they shouldn't be doing things which are against nature.

So are you saying that homosexuals can love eachother as long as they don't have sex or as long as they don't have pleasure while they are having sex? (Since it is against nature)
Even if you believe you could prove that Paul believed homosexuality to be against nature, he also believed men with long hair was against nature. 1 Corinthians, 11:14: "Does not even nature itself teach you, that, if a man have long hair, it is a shame unto him?"
 
Upvote 0

davedjy

Well-Known Member
Dec 11, 2006
2,184
1,080
Southern California
✟33,592.00
Gender
Male
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Single
Politics
US-Libertarian
You are just ignoring the Lord. His word is plain. If I even had a bias, it is identical to that of God.
I'm ignoring your interpretation and it's biases, not the Lord. Try to not get the two confused, K? Your interpretation has been proven to not be a fact.
 
Upvote 0

Floatingaxe

Well-Known Member
Apr 14, 2007
14,757
877
73
Ontario, Canada
✟22,726.00
Faith
Word of Faith
Marital Status
Married
Politics
CA-Conservatives
I'm ignoring your interpretation and it's biases, not the Lord. Try to not get the two confused, K? Your interpretation has been proven to not be a fact.

The sad thing about it is that the interpretation of God's word is not hand in hand with yours in any way. Somehow I think you really haven't gotten to know Paul. He speaks for God in the area of homosexuality, and tells us that anyone who commits deeds associated with homosexuality, or harbours sin of any kind that is of a constantly repetitive nature is in dire peril of hell.
 
Upvote 0

Jet_A_Jockey

Jet+Jetslove=2gether4ever :)
Site Supporter
Mar 9, 2006
11,279
1,082
hurricane central
Visit site
✟62,391.00
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Married
The problem with this interpretation is it relies on a faulty notion that Paul is referring to homosexuals acting out as homosexuals, with out any proof of that interpretation.
Phusis and Phusikos both mean a person's natural disposition, and what comes naturally and instinctively to them. It is a faulty notion to believe that gays and lesbians abandon their natural inclination to the opposite sex to be with the same sex.

since people did not identify themselves as straight/gay/bi at the time, it is safe to assume that the verses are not against each individual's natural disposition, but rather looking at it as a whole. This only correlates even more to why the bible condemns homosexual actions in specific, since gay/bi men at the time still created and raised man/woman families.
 
Upvote 0

davedjy

Well-Known Member
Dec 11, 2006
2,184
1,080
Southern California
✟33,592.00
Gender
Male
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Single
Politics
US-Libertarian
The sad thing about it is that the interpretation of God's word is not hand in hand with yours in any way. Somehow I think you really haven't gotten to know Paul. He speaks for God in the area of homosexuality, and tells us that anyone who commits deeds associated with homosexuality, or harbours sin of any kind that is of a constantly repetitive nature is in dire peril of hell.
You do not speak for Paul, and Paul does not mention anything about a gay or lesbian being in "dire peril of hell".

At the time of Paul's letters there were names for people who did homosexual acts (arrenomanes, kinaidos, paiderastes, paidophthoro, pallakos and others). Paul never used these words in his letters!

The sad thing about YOUR interpretation is it gives endorsement to an idea that God would discriminate against people with an unchangeable sexual orientation.
 
Upvote 0

davedjy

Well-Known Member
Dec 11, 2006
2,184
1,080
Southern California
✟33,592.00
Gender
Male
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Single
Politics
US-Libertarian
since people did not identify themselves as straight/gay/bi at the time, it is safe to assume that the verses are not against each individual's natural disposition, but rather looking at it as a whole. This only correlates even more to why the bible condemns homosexual actions in specific, since gay/bi men at the time still created and raised man/woman families.
You can't have it both ways. If a person has a natural inclination to the same sex, then either Paul is not aware of this, or he isn't addressing gays and lesbians. Phusis and Phusikos DO deal with the individual's inclination and disposition, and those are terms used.
 
Upvote 0

Floatingaxe

Well-Known Member
Apr 14, 2007
14,757
877
73
Ontario, Canada
✟22,726.00
Faith
Word of Faith
Marital Status
Married
Politics
CA-Conservatives
You can't have it both ways. If a person has a natural inclination to the same sex, then either Paul is not aware of this, or he isn't addressing gays and lesbians. Phusis and Phusikos DO deal with the individual's inclination and disposition, and those are terms used.


Paul is totally aware of what he is saying and to whom he is speaking. Thre is no natural inclination to the same sex...it is an aberration, and a perversion.
 
Upvote 0

savedandhappy1

Senior Veteran
Oct 27, 2006
1,831
153
Kansas
✟26,444.00
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
Since I only posted the one line Paul quoted, and summarized Plato's position, I'll concede that this is a fair question. I did not give you enough to judge for yourself.

So Let me post a little more of what Plato wrote. I will still only post a minimal amount and have to explain around it, though. You can download and read the entire dialogue for free thanks to the Gutenberg Project.

The book is written as a dialogue, a conversation among three philosophers, an unnamed Athenian (Plato's main character - generally supposed to be Socrates, but not named so because Socrates was known never to have visited Crete),Megillus (a Lacedaemonian from Sparta), and their host, Cleinias (a cretan) as they walk from Cleinias' house to the temple of Zeus in Crete. The Athenian's lesson is punctuated with questions and comments by the other two, but I am only quoting two sections of the Athenian's words. (Note this is a different translation than I posted earlier, so I'm indicating the previously quoted line in blue. The bolded sections will be discussed below)


In the first paragraph, at the beginning of the quoted line, the Athenian indicates that he is about to make a little joke (at Clienias' expense, it turns out) in his choice of example. The joke, which immediately follows the example, is in the "fact" that Cretans only worship Zeus because they can use his relationship with Ganymede to justify prolonging the erastes/eromenos relationship themselves, and the athenian's point is that this, whether it is true or just a racial stereotype, is exactly the kind of overdoiing things that the Athenian is talking about.

In the second paragraph we see how the Athenian is using the phrase "against nature." He is not considering the Law as a scientific experiment, to see if this law makes Athens physically stronger than Ceos or that law allows Syracuse to conquer Locria. He is not talking about nature in that sense; he is using the phrase to indicate a moral failing. Almost exactly as was indicated in the sermon by John Piper you quoted.



First, of course it is "just what the Bible says, too" Paul is quoting this passage. "Natural" and "against nature" do not appear anywhere in the Old Testament. It is not a Hebrew concept at all. Paul borrows it from the Greeks.

And yes, it is the pleasure, and the slavery (addiction) that the Athenian calls para physis. Paul, who does not want to quote the entire chapter of Laws, when the one line was all he needed, still wanted to make sure that the readers understood that he knew that the example condemns wantonness, and not mere homosexuality, so he rephrased it to include the five key words I mentioned in my last post.

I just got back from call at the hospital, and because I want to spend more time then just a quick read of the above info, I will only touch on part of this post this evening if you don't mind?


According to Plato, unbridled passion is para physis for anyone. The example he chose to illustrate the point was homosexual for other reasons. But that is correct.

If there were other, more clear teaching against homosexuality in the Bible, then (even though Plato didn't condemn homosexuality in the ooriginal) we could still use Romans 1:26-27 against homosexuality, too. However every other verse used to teach against homosexuality shows greater weaknesses than this verse when used that way.

I believe that if you take the Bible as a whole then there is no weakness in the other verses that talk about homosexuality being a sin. The only way that there would be weakness would be if 1 Cor. 6 was the only scripture that spoke of homosexuality. Then even I would have to question and pray alot to see if those two words were really speaking about homosexuality. I say that meaning that if there weren't other things like how perfectly male and female bodies are made to fit. Or how the only marriage that is spoke of is the man and woman one, and how God created them male and female telling them to go forth and multiple.

Looking at the unbridled passions. I am sure that anything to excess would be considered a sin according to the Bible, but to say what Plato was meaning will have to come after I study the above. I am not real sure though why it matters what Plato thought, because Plato didn't write any of the books of the Bible. I don't see anything that says he was inspired by God to write the Laws, and I don't see anywhere that Paul said he was quoting or getting his understanding and information from Plato.

I believe that Paul would have used language that the Greeks were familar with, and so that is why I believe he would have used words that were used in other writings of that time. I don't know that he was quoting Plato's Laws tho, and will add that to the studying I will do before answering the above portion of your post.

Close but no cigar, on two counts. It is not what "I" am saying, but what what the people to whom Paul was writing would recognize as Plato's point. And Plato's point is not that one should not have sex, or that one should not enjoy having sex.

It is that Man is more than just an animal, and his Reason should control his instincts. Having sex (or indulging in any pleasure) simply because it is pleasurable is a moral weakness which can lead to the slavery of addiction. It is an error which carries the seed of it's own recompense.

When it came to sex specifically, the consensus was that because it is so pleasurable, it was important that it only be indulged in for good reasons. You had sex with a wife to sire heirs. You had sex with a Temple prostitute to worship the goddess. You had sex with a professional party hostess because it was part of party experience. You had sex with your eromenos to teach him what sex was. But you did not get carried away.

These were the rules for a society that is not our society. Many of these permitted uses of sex we know to be sinful*. But it is the world which the Roman Church was in but not of. They would have known that this is why the actions in verses 24-27 were labelled para physis, "against nature."

In 1 Corinthians 7, we learn God's solution to the danger of "burning with passion": channel the urges into a loving, married relationship.

I will also add my answer to the last part of your post tomorrow also, as I feel like I am not really making good sense. I am just to tired to get my thoughts together in the written form.

Good night, and thanks for your response and your patience.
 
Upvote 0

davedjy

Well-Known Member
Dec 11, 2006
2,184
1,080
Southern California
✟33,592.00
Gender
Male
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Single
Politics
US-Libertarian
Paul is totally aware of what he is saying and to whom he is speaking. Thre is no natural inclination to the same sex...it is an aberration, and a perversion.
An aberration and perversion, in your opinion.
I believe that same sex love is not perversion, but calling it that is, but that is my opinion.
I also believe it is extremely shallow AND perverse to think that one HAS to be with the opposite sex, and that you have to place everyone in a cookie cutter box to make YOUR ideals fit.
REGARDLESS of what you say and believe, it does come naturally to a gay or lesbian person to be with the same sex.
Thank GOD that there isn't any CREDIBLE mental health foundation in America that believes homosexuality is an illness OR that it is perverse (only unqualified people with a religious agenda that say otherwise).


As stated, at the time of Paul's letters there we names for people who did homosexual acts: arrenomanes, kinaidos, paiderastes, paidophthoro, pallakos, and others. Paul NEVER used any of those terms in his letters. Those WERE the standard terms, and never did he refer to these people and call their acts perverse.
 
Upvote 0

Floatingaxe

Well-Known Member
Apr 14, 2007
14,757
877
73
Ontario, Canada
✟22,726.00
Faith
Word of Faith
Marital Status
Married
Politics
CA-Conservatives
An aberration and perversion, in your opinion.
I believe that same sex love is not perversion, but calling it that is, but that is my opinion.
I also believe it is extremely shallow AND perverse to think that one HAS to be with the opposite sex, and that you have to place everyone in a cookie cutter box to make YOUR ideals fit.

It's utterly ridiculous to be considering homosexuals as part of the wonderful diversity of humanity created by God! He created diversity in us all within the heterosexual model--normalcy.


REGARDLESS of what you say and believe, it does come naturally to a gay or lesbian person to be with the same sex.
Of course they think that! It's absolute delusion. God hates it. He says so.

Thank GOD that there isn't any CREDIBLE mental health foundation in America that believes homosexuality is an illness OR that it is perverse (only unqualified people with a religious agenda that say otherwise).

They are too spineless, godless and highly influenced by the secular society that pushes perversity on right-thinking Christian people.

As stated, at the time of Paul's letters there we names for people who did homosexual acts: arrenomanes, kinaidos, paiderastes, paidophthoro, pallakos, and others. Paul NEVER used any of those terms in his letters. Those WERE the standard terms, and never did he refer to these people and call their acts perverse.
[/QUOTE]

Word games. We all know what God means, and there isn't any spinning and weaving that you can do that changes His mind on the matter.
 
Upvote 0

savedandhappy1

Senior Veteran
Oct 27, 2006
1,831
153
Kansas
✟26,444.00
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
Even if you believe you could prove that Paul believed homosexuality to be against nature, he also believed men with long hair was against nature. 1 Corinthians, 11:14: "Does not even nature itself teach you, that, if a man have long hair, it is a shame unto him?"

Paul is clear that homosexuality goes against nature as shown in his using words that would have been understood in that place and time.

Since when does long hair on a man have anything to do with homosexuality? I don't believe Paul ever said that long hair on a man will keep him from inheriting the Kingdom of God, so I see no comparison in one being a sin and the other being shameful.

Trying to muddy the water by using things that have no bearing isn't anything more then trying to cause confusion., which we know that God isn't the author of.
 
Upvote 0

Jet_A_Jockey

Jet+Jetslove=2gether4ever :)
Site Supporter
Mar 9, 2006
11,279
1,082
hurricane central
Visit site
✟62,391.00
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Married
You can't have it both ways. If a person has a natural inclination to the same sex, then either Paul is not aware of this, or he isn't addressing gays and lesbians. Phusis and Phusikos DO deal with the individual's inclination and disposition, and those are terms used.
Um no. All I'm stating is that gays did not identify themselves in ancient times as they do today. There was no distinction made between people as to whether they were strictly heterosexual or strictly homosexual. In fact, its a safe bet to assume that most gay men in ancient times still created families anyway, since the importance of bloodline and inheritances was great.
 
Upvote 0

Floatingaxe

Well-Known Member
Apr 14, 2007
14,757
877
73
Ontario, Canada
✟22,726.00
Faith
Word of Faith
Marital Status
Married
Politics
CA-Conservatives
Um no. All I'm stating is that gays did not identify themselves in ancient times as they do today. There was no distinction made between people as to whether they were strictly heterosexual or strictly homosexual. In fact, its a safe bet to assume that most gay men in ancient times still created families anyway, since the importance of bloodline and inheritances was great.

Not to mention they had fear and shame and godly sorrow that would lead to repentance when properly chastised and threatened with the appropriate punishment.
 
Upvote 0

Jet_A_Jockey

Jet+Jetslove=2gether4ever :)
Site Supporter
Mar 9, 2006
11,279
1,082
hurricane central
Visit site
✟62,391.00
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Married
that was just a highlight of why the 'natural to each persons disposition' argument is a complete failure. What about pedophiles? Rapists ? Serial killers? It's natural for them to do what they do also isn't it?
 
Upvote 0

tulc

loves "SO'S YER MOM!! posts!
May 18, 2002
49,401
18,804
69
✟279,100.00
Gender
Male
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
that was just a highlight of why the 'natural to each persons disposition' argument is a complete failure. What about pedophiles? Rapists ? Serial killers? It's natural for them to do what they do also isn't it?

...does that mean both sides of the argument have to not use it then? Because I've seen a lot of people make the claim that people are naturally heterosexual, is that wrong? :scratch:
And I know you aren't comparing being gay to being a pedophile or a rapist or a serial killer, but it would be nice if you guys could come up with less...offensive things to compare to being gay to. :sigh:
tulc(just a thought) :(
 
Upvote 0
Status
Not open for further replies.