A ransom for many

[Xeno.of.athens]

Here are all the verses in the KJV that use the English word "Ransom":

Exo 21:30; Exo 30:12; Job 33:24; Job 36:18; Psa 49:7; Pro 6:35; Pro 13:8; Pro 21:18; Isa 43:3; Hos 13:14; Mat 20:28; Mar 10:45; 1Ti 2:6.​

What does it mean when it says Christ is given a ransom for many. A ransom to whom for what?

 

[Maria Billingsley]

Here are all the verses in the KJV that use the English word "Ransom":

Exo 21:30; Exo 30:12; Job 33:24; Job 36:18; Psa 49:7; Pro 6:35; Pro 13:8; Pro 21:18; Isa 43:3; Hos 13:14; Mat 20:28; Mar 10:45; 1Ti 2:6.​

What does it mean when it says Christ is given a ransom for many. A ransom to whom for what?

Payment for sins in other words, releasing someone from captivity.
Blessings

 

[bling]

Here are all the verses in the KJV that use the English word "Ransom":

Exo 21:30; Exo 30:12; Job 33:24; Job 36:18; Psa 49:7; Pro 6:35; Pro 13:8; Pro 21:18; Isa 43:3; Hos 13:14; Mat 20:28; Mar 10:45; 1Ti 2:6.​

What does it mean when it says Christ is given a ransom for many. A ransom to whom for what?

First off: It is good to go back and look at how a word was used throughout scripture, but words used in Old Testament times, which can be a 1000 years earlier may not help us to understand the meaning of a Greek word used in a New Testament Letter or by Christ, the most excellent communicator. If a New Testament author is quoting from the OT than yes, we need to know how the word was used in the OT passage quoted. Remember these NT letters and sermons were said to best communicate to the NT audience being addressed, we have to try and figure out what they would understand. The word “ransom” in the OT could be a small as the temple tax paid annually by the individual themselves, it did not set anyone free, it was not a big sacrifice, and it was a legal justified payment (tax). There were also “ransom” payments made by the individual themselves to free them from slavery or to save their own life, but these had to be reasonable and acceptable to the person being paid, again they were not huge payments and the person demanding the payment was not a criminal kidnapper.

When it comes to the New Testament times in the Roman empire, people are very knowledgeable of sons being kidnapped by criminal kidnappers for a huge ransom, paid by wealthy parents and hopefully accepted by the kidnappers. Julious Ceasar was kidnapped by pirates at age 21 and a huge sum was paid by his parents to get him back, which most people in the Roman empire knew about.

We are really talking about atonement, which is a huge misunderstood topic with all the theories doing a poor job explaining, look at the ransom portion:

The Bible refers to Jesus’ sacrifice as a literal ransom payment:

Mark 10:45 For even the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give his life as a ransom for many.”

1 Timothy 2:6 who gave himself as a ransom for all people. This has now been witnessed to at the proper time

Heb. 9: 15…now that he has died as a ransom to set them free from the sins committed under the first covenant.

We do have the blood specifically mentioned in Revelation 5:9 They sing a new song: “You are worthy to take the scroll and to open its seals, for you were slaughtered and by your blood you ransomed for God saints from every tribe and language and people and nation;

We should agree on:

1. Jesus life and death is the unbelievable huge ransom payment?

2. The ransom payment was made to set children free to go to the Kingdom and be with the Father?

3. Deity (Jesus and God both) made this unbelievable huge payment?

4. All these fit perfectly a ransom scenario?

5. The scripture is not describing Jesus’ cruel torturous death on the cross as being like a ransom payment, but as being a ransom payment?



Now think about this:

In the context of time and people being addressed how would they have understood this idea of an unbelievable huge ransom being paid. Does the “ransoming” fit a kidnapping ransom? The Bible tells us there is a ransom payment at least being offered and definitely made for “many” and “God’s saints” and there is a redemption (setting free).

Peter even helps us out more by contrasting the unbelievable huge payment of Christ to just a payment of silver and gold. Who might take silver and gold, so it can be a good analogy for Peter? 1 Peter 1:18 You know that you were ransomed from the futile ways inherited from your ancestors, not with perishable things like silver or gold,

A kidnapper, in general, holds back the parent’s children awaiting an acceptable ransom payment, so who do you blame for keeping children out of the Kingdom?

The Kidnapper cannot be God, since He is not an undeserving criminal kidnapper holding His own children back.

Also, the Kidnapper would not be satan, since God has the power to take from satan, without paying anything to satan. There is no cosmic Law saying you got to pay the kidnapper and it would be wrong to do so, if you could get around it and satan is fully undeserving.

We know death, sin and evil were concurred with Christ’s death and resurrection, but those are not tangible things needing to be paid anything.

So who is the kidnapper?

When you go up to a nonbelieving sinner, what are you trying to get him/her to accept: A doctrine, a denomination, a book, a theology, a church or something else. NO, you want the nonbeliever to accept “Jesus Christ and Him Crucified” and if he does accept this, than a child of God is released to enter the Kingdom and be with God, but if the sinner rejects “Jesus Christ and Him crucifies” a child is kept out of the Kingdom.

Does this not sound very much like a kidnapping scenario with a ransom being offered?

“Jesus Christ and Him crucified” is described in scripture as the ransom payment.

Could the sinner holding a child of God out of the Kingdom of God, be described as a criminal kidnapper?

“Jesus Christ and Him crucified” is a huge sacrificial payment, like you find with children being ransomed?

Parents will make huge sacrificial payments to have their children released, but it is still up to the kidnapper to accept or reject the ransom.

 

[B Griffin]

Here is the lexical meaning of the greek word:

37.130 λύτρον, ου n; ἀντίλυτρον, ου n: the means or instrument by which release or deliverance is made possible—‘means of release, ransom.’λύτρον: δοῦναι τὴν ψυχὴν αὐτοῦ λύτρον ἀντὶ πολλῶν ‘to give his life as a ransom for many’ or ‘to die as a means of liberating many’ Mt 20:28. ‘To liberate many’ may be expressed in many languages as ‘to cause people to go free’ or, in a more idiomatic manner, ‘to untie many’ or ‘to unchain many.’​

ἀντίλυτρον: ὁ δοὺς ἑαυτὸν ἀντίλυτρον ὑπὲρ πάντων ‘he who gave himself as a ransom for all’ 1 Tm 2:6.​

[Louw, J. P., & Nida, E. A. (1996). In Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament: based on semantic domains (electronic ed. of the 2nd edition., Vol. 1, p. 487). United Bible Societies.]

Here are all the places in the NT the root word (λυτρον) is used (could be a noun, verb, adverb, or participle):

Matt 20:28just as the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give His life a ransom for many.”
Mark 10:45For even the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give His life a ransom for many.”
Luke 1:68“Blessed is the Lord God of Israel, For He has visited and redeemed His people,
Luke 2:38And coming in that instant she gave thanks to the Lord, and spoke of Him to all those who looked for redemption in Jerusalem.
Luke 21:28Now when these things begin to happen, look up and lift up your heads, because your redemption draws near.”
Luke 24:21But we were hoping that it was He who was going to redeem Israel. Indeed, besides all this, today is the third day since these things happened.
Acts 7:35“This Moses whom they rejected, saying, ‘Who made you a ruler and a judge?’ is the one God sent to be a ruler and a deliverer by the hand of the Angel who appeared to him in the bush.
Rom 3:24being justified freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus,
Rom 8:23Not only that, but we also who have the firstfruits of the Spirit, even we ourselves groan within ourselves, eagerly waiting for the adoption, the redemption of our body.
1 Cor 1:30But of Him you are in Christ Jesus, who became for us wisdom from God—and righteousness and sanctification and redemption—
Eph 1:7In Him we have redemption through His blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of His grace
Eph 1:14who is the guarantee of our inheritance until the redemption of the purchased possession, to the praise of His glory.
Eph 4:30And do not grieve the Holy Spirit of God, by whom you were sealed for the day of redemption.
Col 1:14in whom we have redemption through His blood, the forgiveness of sins.
1 Tim 2:6who gave Himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time,
Titus 2:14who gave Himself for us, that He might redeem us from every lawless deed and purify for Himself His own special people, zealous for good works.
Heb 9:12Not with the blood of goats and calves, but with His own blood He entered the Most Holy Place once for all, having obtained eternal redemption.
Heb 9:15And for this reason He is the Mediator of the new covenant, by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions under the first covenant, that those who are called may receive the promise of the eternal inheritance.
Heb 11:35Women received their dead raised to life again. Others were tortured, not accepting deliverance, that they might obtain a better resurrection.
1 Pet 1:18knowing that you were not redeemed with corruptible things, like silver or gold, from your aimless conduct received by tradition from your fathers,

 

[BobRyan]

Here are all the verses in the KJV that use the English word "Ransom":

Exo 21:30; Exo 30:12; Job 33:24; Job 36:18; Psa 49:7; Pro 6:35; Pro 13:8; Pro 21:18; Isa 43:3; Hos 13:14; Mat 20:28; Mar 10:45; 1Ti 2:6.​

What does it mean when it says Christ is given a ransom for many. A ransom to whom for what?

From the demands of His own Law. Because of our sin, our rebellion against His Law - all mankind is condemned (every mouth, all the world, Rom 3)

Rom 6:23 "the wages of sin is death"
Scripture speaks to all mankind - as condemned under the Law
Rom 3:23 - ALL have sinned

Rom 3:19 Now we know that whatever the Law says, it speaks to those who are under the Law, so that every mouth may be closed and all the world may become accountable to God; 20 because by the works of the Law none of mankind will be justified in His sight; for through the Law comes knowledge of sin.

1 John 3:4 "sin IS transgression of the Law" - by definition


Gal 4:4 But when the fullness of the time came, God sent His Son, born of a woman, born under the Law, 5 so that He might redeem those who were under the Law, that we might receive the adoption as sons and daughters

(Under the condemnation of the Law)

Rom 7:
2 For the married woman is bound by law to her husband as long as he is alive; but if her husband dies, she is released from the law concerning the husband. 3 So then, if while her husband is alive she gives herself to another man, she will be called an adulteress; but if her husband dies, she is free from the law, so that she is not an adulteress if she gives herself to another man.
4 Therefore, my brothers and sisters, you also were put to death in regard to the Law through the body of Christ, so that you might belong to another, to Him who was raised from the dead, in order that we might bear fruit for God


2 Cor 5:21 He made Him who knew no sin to be sin in our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.
The death of Christ redeems us from the curse of eternal death - under the Law.

 

[HTacianas]

Here are all the verses in the KJV that use the English word "Ransom":

Exo 21:30; Exo 30:12; Job 33:24; Job 36:18; Psa 49:7; Pro 6:35; Pro 13:8; Pro 21:18; Isa 43:3; Hos 13:14; Mat 20:28; Mar 10:45; 1Ti 2:6.​

What does it mean when it says Christ is given a ransom for many. A ransom to whom for what?

"Ransom" is actually not a very good word for it. To say "redemption" better describes it. In the old testament God claimed as His every firstborn of animals and persons. The firstborn of animals was given as a sacrifice, but the firstborn of people could be redeemed by a substitution of an animal sacrifice. In the new testament Mary brought two doves to redeem Jesus. Sin also requires a sacrifice for the redemption of the sinner. The sinner's life belongs to God as punishment for transgressing His commands, but a sacrifice could be offered in the place of the sinner's life. The crucifixion served as a redemption of all mankind, "for all have sinned", sin leads to death, but the sinners have been redeemed.

Going any further than that leads to the ransom theory of atonement, which leads to other theories of atonement, which leads to even more theories of atonement. But there is the story of the scapegoat in Leviticus, where one goat is offered as a sacrifice to God, but another goat, the scapegoat, is sent into the wilderness as a ransom to Azazel. Note that the priest sending the scapegoat into the wilderness is required to bathe himself afterwards. It is paralleled by the account of Pilate freeing Barabbas in the new testament. Jesus, the sacrifice, is crucified, while Barabbas is sent "into the wilderness". After freeing Barabbas, Pilate washes his hands. Barabbas, whose name is Jesus Barabbas, or Jesus Bar Abbas, meaning Jesus son of the father, is sent into the wilderness. Make what you want of that.

 

[RileyG]

Payment for sins in other words, releasing someone from captivity.
Blessings

How is a Ransom different from Penal substitution?

Blessings

 

[RileyG]

Christ is the Lamb that was once and all sacrificed for us.

 

[BobRyan]

How is a Ransom different from Penal substitution?

Blessings

It isn't

Jesus ransomed us from condemnation under the Law - by His being "made to be sin for us that we might become the righteousness of God in Him." - 2 Cor 5

 

[BobRyan]

"Ransom" is actually not a very good word for it. To say "redemption" better describes it.

In either case one has to make a payment to obtain something. But in general I use the term Redeemed more than "ransomed".

The Law demands payment (one could say ,, demands a ransom).

But since we are born sinners and we all chose to sin - we can't take the ransom idea to its strictest sense -- no alien captured us and then demanded payment to release us. It is God's Word, God's Law that set the condition Rom 6:23 "the wages of sin is death".

God could have chosen to delete the Law and release us all without any payment. That would make His own Word, His own law -- void.

Rom 3:31 says that is not the Gospel solution

 

[Clare73]

"Ransom" is actually not a very good word for it. To say "redemption" better describes it. In the old testament God claimed as His every firstborn of animals and persons. The firstborn of animals was given as a sacrifice, but the firstborn of people could be redeemed by a substitution of an animal sacrifice. In the new testament Mary brought two doves to redeem Jesus.

Almost.

Every firstborn male is to be consecrated to the Lord (Lk 2:23)

God bought back (redeemed) from the destroying angel all the firstborn of Israel, both men and animals, in the tenth plague (Ex 12:21-29).
Because God purchased them from death, they were his by right (Ex 13:2, 12-15, 22:29). Therefore,

firstborn animals were consecrated to God by sacrifice (Ex 13:15),
1) firstborn sons were consecrated to God by full-time service to God (Ex 13:2),
2) God then substituted the Levites and their livestock for consecration to his full-time service in place of the firstborn sons of Israel and their firstborn animals (Nu 3:9-13, 41, 44-51, 8:15-19), and then gave to the Levites his right of ownership of all firstborn males, both men and animals (Nu 18:14-15),
3) therefore, all the firstborn males of Israel had to be bought back (redeemed) from the Levites for five shekels of silver (Ex 13:13, 15, 30:16, 34:20, Nu 18:15-16).

PURE GOSPEL:
Picture (type, pattern) of the church of the firstborn (Heb 12:23),
who have been delivered from the destroying angel (Satan - 1 Pe 5:8, Jn 10:10)
and bought back (redeemed) from eternal death (Eph 2:1, 5, Col 2:13)
by Christ, our priest (Levite), who was substituted for us (Mt 20:28),
God now having exclusive right to us by his Son''s purchase of us (1 Co 6:20, 1 Co 7:23, Ac 20:28b, 1 Pe 2:9, Rev 5:9, 14:4)
and who, therefore, are now to be consecrated to the Lord (Ro 6:13, 2 Co 5:15).

And having just explained the meaning of redeeming Jesus, I notice the two doves to redeem Jesus, and realize that does not refer to redeeming the firstborn, but to purification after childbirth (which made both the woman and the child unclean), which purification of both the woman and the child culminated in a sin offering and a burnt offering, each of a dove or pigeon (Lev 12:6-8).

The sacrifices for purification after childbirth were confused by you with redemption of the first born.

Sin also requires a sacrifice for the redemption of the sinner. The sinner's life belongs to God as punishment for transgressing His commands, but a sacrifice could be offered in the place of the sinner's life. The crucifixion served as a redemption of all mankind, "for all have sinned", sin leads to death, but the sinners have been redeemed.

Going any further than that leads to the ransom theory of atonement, which leads to other theories of atonement, which leads to even more theories of atonement. But there is the story of the scapegoat in Leviticus, where one goat is offered as a sacrifice to God, but another goat, the scapegoat, is sent into the wilderness as a ransom to Azazel.

Azazel is Hebrew for "goat of removal." (Lev 16:8, 10, 26).
It was not about ransom, it was about removing sin from the presence of the tabernacle.
How is the sin-bearing goat a ransom to "Azazel?"

Note that the priest sending the scapegoat into the wilderness is required to bathe himself afterwards.

He was defiled by the sin-bearing goat and had to be cleansed.

It is paralleled by the account of Pilate freeing Barabbas in the new testament. Jesus, the sacrifice, is crucified, while Barabbas is sent "into the wilderness". After freeing Barabbas, Pilate washes his hands. Barabbas, whose name is Jesus Barabbas, or Jesus Bar Abbas, meaning Jesus son of the father, is sent into the wilderness. Make what you want of that.

Barabbas did not bear the sin of the people, as did the scapegoat.
Pilate did not wash his hands to cleanse from the defilement of Barrabbas, as did the priest from the defilement of the scapegoat, but to cleanse from the guilt of the blood of Jesus.

No parallels.

 

[RileyG]

It isn't

Jesus ransomed us from condemnation under the Law - by His being "made to be sin for us that we might become the righteousness of God in Him." - 2 Cor 5

Isn't Penal Substitution when Jesus had the wrath of God the Father poured out upon him? Like some Calvinists or other Protestants believe?

Ransom for many wouldn't agree with that view.

 

[Clare73]

Isn't Penal Substitution when Jesus had the wrath of God the Father poured out upon him? Like some Calvinists or other Protestants believe?

Ransom for many wouldn't agree with that view.

Penal (death) substitution (for my sin), as the animal sacrifices in the OT paid the penalty of death in the place of the sinner for his sin.

 

[RileyG]

Penal (death) substitution (for my sin), as the animal sacrifices in the OT paid the penalty of death in the place of the sinner for his sin.

Ok. I think I understand now. Thank you for your response.

 

[HTacianas]

Almost.

Every firstborn male is to be consecrated to the Lord (Lk 2:23)

God bought back (redeemed) from the destroying angel all the firstborn of Israel, both men and animals, in the tenth plague (Ex 12:21-29).
Because God purchased them from death, they were his by right (Ex 13:2, 12-15, 22:29). Therefore,

firstborn animals were consecrated to God by sacrifice (Ex 13:15),
1) firstborn sons were consecrated to God by full-time service to God (Ex 13:2),
2) God then substituted the Levites and their livestock for consecration to his full-time service in place of the firstborn sons of Israel and their firstborn animals (Nu 3:9-13, 41, 44-51, 8:15-19), and then gave to the Levites his right of ownership of all firstborn males, both men and animals (Nu 18:14-15),
3) therefore, all the firstborn males of Israel had to be bought back (redeemed) from the Levites for five shekels of silver (Ex 13:13, 15, 30:16, 34:20, Nu 18:15-16), or for the poor, two doves or two young pigeons (Lev 12:8).

PURE GOSPEL:
Picture (type, pattern) of the church of the firstborn (Heb 12:23),
who have been delivered from the destroying angel (Satan - 1 Pe 5:8, Jn 10:10)
and bought back (redeemed) from eternal death (Eph 2:1, 5, Col 2:13)
by Christ, our priest (Levite), who was substituted for us (Mt 20:28),
God now having exclusive right to us by purchase (1 Co 6:20, 1 Co 7:23, Ac 20:28b, 1 Pe 2:9, Rev 5:9, 14:4)
and who, therefore, are now to be consecrated to the Lord (Ro 6:13, 2 Co 5:15).

Azazel is Hebrew for "goat of removal." (Lev 16:8, 10, 26).
It was not about ransom, it was about removing sin from the presence of the tabernacle.

He was defiled by the sin-bearing goat and had to be cleansed.

Barabbas did not bear the sin of the people, as did the scapegoat.
Pilate did not wash his hands to cleanse from the defilement of Barrabbas, as did the priest from the defilement of the scapegoat, but to cleanse from the guilt of the blood of Jesus.

No parallels.

You can read an article regarding Azazel here:

AZAZEL - JewishEncyclopedia.com

Complete contents the 1906 Jewish Encyclopedia.

jewishencyclopedia.com

See also the Epistle of Barnabas 7:1-11:

The Epistle of Barnabas (translation J.B. Lightfoot)

The Epistle of Barnabas (translation J.B. Lightfoot). On Early Christian Writings.

www.earlychristianwritings.com

 

[Clare73]

You can read an article regarding Azazel here:

AZAZEL - JewishEncyclopedia.com

Complete contents the 1906 Jewish Encyclopedia.

jewishencyclopedia.com

The Biblical usage is insufficient?

See also the Epistle of Barnabas 7:1-11:

The Epistle of Barnabas (translation J.B. Lightfoot)

The Epistle of Barnabas (translation J.B. Lightfoot). On Early Christian Writings.

www.earlychristianwritings.com

That's not in my Bible.

 

[HTacianas]

The Biblical usage is insufficient?

That's not in my Bible.

The biblical usage is rather scarce. And pardon me when I say this, but your commentary is not in my bible either.

 

[BobRyan]

Isn't Penal Substitution when Jesus had the wrath of God the Father poured out upon him? Like some Calvinists or other Protestants believe?

Ransom for many wouldn't agree with that view.

Penal substitution at its core - merely says that the punishment that the Law demands for sin - is put upon Christ instead of the sinner. He pays our debt in our place. It is the statement from the POV of a court of law.

Ransom for many simply says that the payment owed for many - is provided. It does not get into the detail of whether the payment that is required was just or not --

in fact the word "ransom" could lead one to conclude that it is an unjust/illegal/unlawful scenario that one pays to get out of. Criminals demand a ransom and when they get it - they let their prisoner go free - but nothing about their demand of ransom is legal, just or right.


RANSOM

1 : to deliver especially from sin or its penalty​

2 : to free from captivity or punishment by paying a price​

So Ransom is more generic and can apply to a number of different scenarios.

But given a certain limitation on the "Ransom" scenarios - it begins to look like 6 of one and half-dozen of the other.

 

[RileyG]

Penal substitution at its core - merely says that the punishment that the Law demands for sin - is put upon Christ instead of the sinner. He pays our debt in our place. It is the statement from the POV of a court of law.

Ransom for many simply says that the payment owed for many - is provided. It does not get into the detail of whether the payment that is required was just or not --

in fact the word "ransom" could lead one to conclude that it is an unjust/illegal/unlawful scenario that one pays to get out of. Criminals demand a ransom and when they get it - they let their prisoner go free - but nothing about their demand of ransom is legal, just or right.


RANSOM

1 : to deliver especially from sin or its penalty​

2 : to free from captivity or punishment by paying a price​

So Ransom is more generic and can apply to a number of different scenarios.

But given a certain limitation on the "Ransom" scenarios - it begins to look like 6 of one and half-dozen of the other.

Thank you for the detailed explanation. It's appreciated.

 

[Clare73]

The biblical usage is rather scarce.

Yes, it being used only four times in the OT, and all four times to mean the "goat of removal."
Its meaning as used in the OT is the only meaning relevant to the Day of Atonement in Lev 16.

And pardon me when I say this, but your commentary is not in my bible either.

Oh, but indeed it is.

The presentation of both redemption of the first born, as well as of purification of the mother and child after childbirth (your confusing the latter with the former in your post #6), are found in the 17 Biblical texts presented in my explanation (post #11).