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A Food issue?

Lotuspetal_uk

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I don't know why this has troubled me so much (third day chewing on it - excuse the pun) but I thought I'd ask it here :)

A person new to the faith has asked a question pertaining to Christians eating pork in the Morality section of CF:

http://www.christianforums.com/t72060&page=1

I am dismayed that the majority of the posters are saying it's ok to eat pork! But I feel helpless to appropriately find the words to show them that what they are saying is not what the early followers had done.

I feel an empathy for the first poster because I have come a long way from being someone who did not even know G-d existed, to realising He did, to then realising that there is in fact a certain way He intends for those He loves to live for Him. I have witnessed in my own life that as I seek Him out more, things in my life have changed, the most recent of which has been a dislike for foods that in the Tanakh are classed as unclean (this has kind of freaked me out). I've gotten to the point where even the smell of pork makes me nauseous. I even found out only recently (on one of SW's threads here) that the reason why I use to heave at cooking catfish for my husband was that it was one of the foods forbidden :D

Needless to say my personal experiences do not comply with the views expressed in the above thread. :blush:
Can someone please help me on this one? :bow:

G-d bless
 

Lotuspetal_uk

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Just another quick question....

I find that with threads like these the argument used to justify eating pork etc is Matt 5:17 where the word 'fulfil' has been taken to mean 'complete' - that with the onset of Messiah people do not need to live by the Law.

And yet when I looked up the word 'fulfil' in my concordance, it can also mean to 'verify' amongst other things.

Does anyone familiar with Biblical Greek know the exact contextual meaning of this verse?

Thank you!

Hopefully this may put to rest the fact that this has gotten under my skin for so many days :D
 
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BenTsion

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Lotuspetal,
Shalom!

I am dismayed that the majority of the posters are saying it's ok to eat pork! But I feel helpless to appropriately find the words to show them that what they are saying is not what the early followers had done.

That comes from the innacurate interpretation that Yeshua made all foods clean, in addition to a wrong interpretation of Kepha's vision in the book of Acts. So, if Yeshua made everything clean, why not eat bats or poisonous snakes? The point Yeshua was making is that what defiles things is not our hands, but our hearts, for that's where sin comes from. He was not making a case for pork and shrimp.

Unfortunately, Christians have no love for the Torah. In fact, many of them are embarrassed by it. Sadly, they're the ones who're going to suffer the consequences (high cholesterol, stomachaches, infections, allergies, etc.). Then, they're gonna pray that G-d heals them. Makes me wonder why they didn't consult G-d's manual (the Torah) before doing that.

You can tell them that eating the foods forbidden in Lev. 11 won't stop them from going to Heaven, but they're gonna get there much earlier ;)

Rather then focusing on the 'breaking the law' thing, focus on the health issue, and how G-d knows best what is good and what is bad for our health.

B'Shem Yeshua,
Ben Tsion
 
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KelsayDL

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I am dismayed that the majority of the posters are saying it's ok to eat pork! But I feel helpless to appropriately find the words to show them that what they are saying is not what the early followers had done.
It's very easy for people to take the words of the NT and rationalize away G-d's instructions for man.

Most people don't mind being told what they want to hear. We are all guilty of that to an extent.


However at some point in time one must decide to start seeking the truth on the matter for himself. Once they do, the NT takes on a whole new look.

I read your linked thread, but honestly do not want to waste my time on an issue people simply do not want to believe (so I won't reply in it). But the passage they keep bringing up (which btw is their best defense, weak as it is) is from matthew. Lets check it out;

Matthew 15:10-20 10 And he called the multitude, and said unto them, Hear, and understand: 11 Not that which goeth into the mouth defileth a man; but that which cometh out of the mouth, this defileth a man. 12 Then came his disciples, and said unto him, Knowest thou that the Pharisees were offended, after they heard this saying? 13 But he answered and said, Every plant, which my heavenly Father hath not planted, shall be rooted up. 14 Let them alone: they be blind leaders of the blind. And if the blind lead the blind, both shall fall into the ditch. 15 Then answered Peter and said unto him, Declare unto us this parable. 16 And Jesus said, Are ye also yet without understanding? 17 Do not ye yet understand, that whatsoever entereth in at the mouth goeth into the belly, and is cast out into the draught? 18 But those things which proceed out of the mouth come forth from the heart; and they defile the man. 19 For out of the heart proceed evil thoughts, murders, adulteries, fornications, thefts, false witness, blasphemies:

On the surface these sayings of Yeshua seemingly trample under foot the dietary restrictions given to mankind (yes, mankind. Long before Sinai, Noah took clean and unclean animals alike onto the ark) But if we look at the last verse in the passage, we are given what he meant, in it's entirety;

20 These are the things which defile a man: but to eat with unwashen hands defileth not a man.

So it would appear that the problem was eating with unwashed hands that was being addressed. (keep in mind the pharisees complaint:
Mt 15:2 -Why do thy disciples transgress the tradition of the elders? for they wash not their hands when they eat bread.)



Let me prove this to you. Notice in verse 15 where Peter says;



15 Then answered Peter and said unto him, Declare unto us this parable.




Peter asked for clarity and Yeshua gave it to him. Now, lets look ahead and we will see the understanding that Peter left with that day.



Acts 10:9-18
9 On the morrow, as they went on their journey, and drew nigh unto the city, Peter went up upon the housetop to pray about the sixth hour: 10 And he became very hungry, and would have eaten: but while they made ready, he fell into a trance, 11 And saw heaven opened, and a certain vessel descending unto him, as it had been a great sheet knit at the four corners, and let down to the earth: 12 Wherein were all manner of fourfooted beasts of the earth, and wild beasts, and creeping things, and fowls of the air. 13 And there came a voice to him, Rise, Peter; kill, and eat.14 But Peter said, Not so, Lord; for I have never eaten any thing that is common or unclean. 15 And the voice spake unto him again the second time, What God hath cleansed, that call not thou common. 16 This was done thrice:


So years after Peter asked for clarity on the meaning of Yeshuas words, he was still holding fast to the dietary laws. And he continued to do so the remainder of his life.


It wasn't made clear to Peter (nor any of Yeshuas apstles) that on that day Yeshua nullified the commandments of his G-d and Father. How can we today think that he did?


Not from the words of G-d, Yeshua, any prophet, nor any of Yeshuas true apostles will you ever see the commandments of G-d be lessened or nullified. Much less trampled under foot such as those of us in mainstream christianity have done. (Mt 7:6 - Give not that which is holy unto the dogs, neither cast ye your pearls before swine, lest they trample them under their feet, and turn again and rend you.)

One last thing on this passage that most people use to justify doing away with the dietary laws. Are not the dietary restrictions part of the law, the teachings of G-d? One would be hard pressed to argue that they were not. Now, that being established lets turn to the Tanakh for a moment;

Deuteronomy 13:1-5



[font=Arial, Geneva, Helvetica]1 If there arise among you a prophet, or a dreamer of dreams, and giveth thee a sign or a wonder, 2 And the sign or the wonder come to pass, whereof he spake unto thee, saying, Let us go after other gods, which thou hast not known, and let us serve them; 3 Thou shalt not hearken unto the words of that prophet, or that dreamer of dreams: for the LORD your God proveth you, to know whether ye love the LORD your God with all your heart and with all your soul. 4 Ye shall walk after the LORD your God, and fear him, and keep his commandments, and obey his voice, and ye shall serve him, and cleave unto him. 5 And that prophet, or that dreamer of dreams, shall be put to death; because he hath spoken to turn you away from the LORD your God, which brought you out of the land of Egypt, and redeemed you out of the house of bondage, to thrust thee out of the way which the LORD thy God commanded thee to walk in. So shalt thou put the evil away from the midst of thee.






Read that a few times and ask yourself, who would Yeshua be if he attempted to do away with the dietary laws?


No, Yeshua did not come to do away with the laws of G-d.

Also notice in Acts 15 that at the Jerusalem council 3 out of the 4 "necessary things" instructed for gentiles were of a dietary nature.


One last note on this matter, from Isaiah 66;


15 For, behold, the LORD will come with fire, and with his chariots like a whirlwind, to render his anger with fury, and his rebuke with flames of fire. 16 For by fire and by his sword will the LORD plead with all flesh: and the slain of the LORD shall be many. 17 They that sanctify themselves, and purify themselves in the gardens behind one tree in the midst, eating swine's flesh, and the abomination, and the mouse, shall be consumed together, saith the LORD. 18 For I know their works and their thoughts:



This is a future event. So...





Just another quick question....

I find that with threads like these the argument used to justify eating pork etc is Matt 5:17 where the word 'fulfil' has been taken to mean 'complete' - that with the onset of Messiah people do not need to live by the Law.

And yet when I looked up the word 'fulfil' in my concordance, it can also mean to 'verify' amongst other things.

Does anyone familiar with Biblical Greek know the exact contextual meaning of this verse?

Thank you!

Hopefully this may put to rest the fact that this has gotten under my skin for so many days
While I'm not familar with biblical greek. I believe it's quite possible just by reading the words of Yeshua that when he said fulfill, he obviously did not mean complete (which is really a candy coated word for abolished IMO).


Peace.​
[/font]



 
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Achichem

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And yet when I looked up the word 'fulfil' in my concordance, it can also mean to 'verify' amongst other things.

Does anyone familiar with Biblical Greek know the exact contextual meaning of this verse?
I am no expert but I am slowly learning...

That not exactly true, “πληρόω” a Greek verb pronounced “pleroo”
relating to the Greek adjective:
“πλήρης”pronounced “Pleres”

This word that can mean both to fill and to complete (make perfect).
So the intent was to say fulfilled, however to find out what sence, we have to explore a little.

“πληρόω” was used, this choice should indicate meaning.
Now other verbs meaning, “fulfilled” that Matthew could have used, assuming that is that he indeed wrote it in Greek, which I do not believe. But in any case are:
“πλήθω” pronounced Pletho
“πληροφορέω” pronounced Plerophoreo

Let us say he had used the word:
“πλήθω” the foundational root word of “πληρόω”
This simply and always means fulfill, with no other attach meaning; and would indicate that before that time they were empty…This shows us that this is not likley Matthew’s indent.

Now, lets say he had used the word: “πληροφορέω”
The conveyed meaning would be “to bring to and end” or “accomplish” indicating that the old was some time of path that keep on getting filled and this was the last. So we know this was not likley Matthews’s intent.

So now knowing Matthews ‘choice’ we know that it must be the meaing that is not liek the others, So that is “πληρόω” convays a meaning, “bring to realization, realize”, that is why with a high level confidence, not 100% one should assume Matthew intent was to say that yeshua had said:
[do not][think][that][I have come][to dissolve, abolish, or destroy] [the][established laws][either][the][interpreters, seers (prophets)]
[NO,]I have not [come] [to dissolve, abolish, or destroy][but][ to bring realization].
[amen]
[for]They are[to teach][you][till][*][pass by][the][heavens ][and][the][earth]
[The smallest][one][either][one of][the minutest].[No][not][pass][away].
[The][ established laws][are till][*][everything][happens].
Note that the word [happens] “γίνομαι” or “ginomai” is a verb, not meaning nor related to "fulfilling" as some would have you believe, but "to become", or "come to pass".

Shalom,
DaTsar
 
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Lotuspetal_uk

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BenTsion said:
Unfortunately, Christians have no love for the Torah. In fact, many of them are embarrassed by it. Sadly, they're the ones who're going to suffer the consequences (high cholesterol, stomachaches, infections, allergies, etc.). Then, they're gonna pray that G-d heals them. Makes me wonder why they didn't consult G-d's manual (the Torah) before doing that.


You can tell them that eating the foods forbidden in Lev. 11 won't stop them from going to Heaven, but they're gonna get there much earlier ;)

Rather then focusing on the 'breaking the law' thing, focus on the health issue, and how G-d knows best what is good and what is bad for our health.

B'Shem Yeshua,
Ben Tsion
Ben Tsion,

Shalom

Thank you for your post - thats a good angle to approach it from! :) Although at long last, I've realised that from what I've noticed in the IDD forums sometimes there is no point to thrashing it out with those who do not see this.

Given the short amount of time I have on the net I guess it would be more prudent to learn more from you guys than involve myself in fruitless debates.

G-d bless

LP
 
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Lotuspetal_uk

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KelsayDL said:
[font=Arial, Geneva, Helvetica]


No, Yeshua did not come to do away with the laws of G-d.
Also notice in Acts 15 that at the Jerusalem council 3 out of the 4 "necessary things" instructed for gentiles were of a dietary nature.


[/font]
Shalom KelsayDL,

Thank you also for your post - you know what also struck me with Deut 13:1-5 was verse 4. If the others (in that thread) believed what they did then that would have them believe that Y-shua was telling the Pharisees in Matt 15:11 to break the L-rd's commands. And yet when reading the whole chapter, one sees as you've pointed out that the issue pertained to the washing of hands and not a dietery issue.

I also recall reading an article about Acts 15 and in particular verses 19-21. Most Christians stop reading (or paying attention) at verse 20, but this article explained that verse 21 related to the fact that the Gentiles at the time had access to the Torah "in every city........in the synagogues on every Sabbath" (Acts 15:21), indicating that they would be regularly visiting the synagogues. So, as with what I'm personally witnessing in myself, the Gentiles would have only been 'burdened' initially with what was quoted in verse 20, BUT through guidance of the Holy Spirit plus familiarising themselves (understanding) that which was given by Moses they eventually will - how can I say... - 'live' the Torah without it being burdensome. I sure wish I had the article now because it said it so much more eloquantly than my last sentence :D
G-d bless
 
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Lotuspetal_uk

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DaTsar said:
I am no expert but I am slowly learning...

That not exactly true, “πληρόω” a Greek verb pronounced “pleroo”
relating to the Greek adjective:
“πλήρης”pronounced “Pleres”

This word that can mean both to fill and to complete (make perfect).
So the intent was to say fulfilled, however to find out what sence, we have to explore a little.

“πληρόω” was used, this choice should indicate meaning.
Now other verbs meaning, “fulfilled” that Matthew could have used, assuming that is that he indeed wrote it in Greek, which I do not believe. But in any case are:
“πλήθω” pronounced Pletho
“πληροφορέω” pronounced Plerophoreo

Let us say he had used the word:
“πλήθω” the foundational root word of “πληρόω”
This simply and always means fulfill, with no other attach meaning; and would indicate that before that time they were empty…This shows us that this is not likley Matthew’s indent.

Now, lets say he had used the word: “πληροφορέω”
The conveyed meaning would be “to bring to and end” or “accomplish” indicating that the old was some time of path that keep on getting filled and this was the last. So we know this was not likley Matthews’s intent.

So now knowing Matthews ‘choice’ we know that it must be the meaing that is not liek the others, So that is “πληρόω” convays a meaning, “bring to realization, realize”, that is why with a high level confidence, not 100% one should assume Matthew intent was to say that yeshua had said:
Note that the word [happens] “γίνομαι” or “ginomai” is a verb, not meaning nor related to "fulfilling" as some would have you believe, but "to become", or "come to pass".

Shalom,
DaTsar
Shalom DaTsar!

See, this is why I need to learn Greek and Biblical Hebrew! :bow:

Thank you for your post - I knew that the translated word, "fulfill" used in most English Bibles had more meat to it than simply to mean that the Law was done away with.

G-d bless
 
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GreenEyedLady

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I am confused.
I have not seen Romans 14 talked about yet?
Romans 14:17 For the kingdom of God is not meat and drink; but righteousness, and peace, and joy in the Holy Ghost.
18 For he that in these things serveth Christ is acceptable to God, and approved of men.

I think you should read the entire chapter 14. I think its sad that you said Christians have no love for the Torah. You don't know all Christians and putting them in a category like that is sad and unfair.
 
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Achichem

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GreenEyedLady said:
I think you should read the entire chapter 14. I think its sad that you said Christians have no love for the Torah. You don't know all Christians and putting them in a category like that is sad and unfair.
Christians is a subjective word,and apply to the context it is put in, if it does not apply and you do love to torah, then you should not take offence becasue we do not categorize, we are using the word in context to make somthign taht needs to be said, be spoken.

I would be happy to talk about Romans 14,but I am at school and do not have much time,so I will come and post when I have more time.

Shalom,
Datsar
 
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Achichem

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Neous’cren’adee’oe, by Oradin, Self-translation:
Do you not know judgment is good if used righteously, for even the LORD G-d Tell us to execute judgment, not judgment where it is not are place, but judgment where judgment is due, for why should we allow our brother to hind behind a veil, or run from what he knows spoken by truth. We shall not!, we shall call a lie a “lie” and a sin a “sin”, we shall speak in our place, when it is our time.

But how can I mean this for have we not been told to “love” and not “judge”, has not Vers’rum, told us not to judge for has he not asked “why do you judge your brother? Why do you show contempt ? For we shall be before the judgment of G-d together”, yet you are being swayed to think he means do not execute what the Lord has commanded, he is a servant of the LORD why do you think he speak of a different tongue.

I will explain what he teaches again to you, you of little faith
Do not take what is a law, and then say “look, look, this man has committed adultery” he must die for it is the law. Do not take the law and say “Look, look, this man has ate of the fruit that is forbidden” or “look, look this man has taken what is stolen surly he must not be of G-d."

Why say you these things?

Why right do you have to tell the law, are you a righteous man in the law, or a criminal? Then the Holy blood set you free, and the voice of G-d was in us. So then truly you must hear then that it is not the law that one uses to judge righteously things on matters of faith, nor faith on a matters of law.

And surly you know that to judge a man by law in a matter of faith, you have made filthy your white garment, so get up and wash clean.

And when you judge, judge righteously as according to the word, faith to faith, and law to law.
Oradin speaks well on this matter, and explains what Paul is saying.
You see you must see that Paul speaks of the same mouth as all G-d faithful spirited before him.

He speaks not in contrast to anything said before him, it is on "why we shall not judge people by written law, when faith is the matter.

Of course, since many here reading believe this mean your free of the torah, I will use soem other fragments of a letter Of Ordain on the subject.
So’um-dee’oe:
What is the difference of the law and the law of faith?
So’um-dee’oe:
they come of the same source, know such? They come of our Holy living G-d!
So’um-dee’oe:
[the law of Faith] speaks of the matter of spirit and temptation, well the law speaks of physical things.
So to judge righteously by [the law of faith]:
Say unto those who do what is sinful:
“Why, why brother do you do not do the things prescribe by G-d, surly you know his ways are the path of the spirit? Surly you wish to follow the living G-d.”
or
"do the things of G-d's way, or you shall reap sorrow"
But the law may not judge people, for the law was not made for man, but for sin!
The laws can accurse sin; [the law of faith] man, that is the difference.
Just remember, the law is dead and thus for the dead, [the law of faith] is living and thus for the living.
 
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