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dad

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Besides the fact that the physical laws of science do not change, and we know that because there would be undeniable physical evidence at that change, "yes (Ken [dad] Ham), we were there".

No you were not there in Noah's day actually. Nice try. If the nature changed from something other than what we now have there would be no such changes as you claim IN our nature!






Light YEARS? You do not know time exists at the star do you? You see the 'explosion' here.


Without time we have no distance known. That means ALL your calculations are wrong.
 
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RickG

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dad

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No you were not there in Noah's day actually. Nice try.
God was. He gave us the record. We know that record is true.

The evidence that God left for us was.
That means nothing when all you really mean is that a godless manscience view of creation will yield skewed results. Naturally they will. Bias is a funny thing.

Perhaps the question should be why must one misrepresent science to justify their religious beliefs?
Science is not able to do anything but what it was set up to do, and that is deal in a certain physical only narrow range. The past wasn't on the frequency!

Yes science does. Your denial of the science doesn't change that.
Calm down. Science knows there is time and time as we know it in the far corners of creation and space? Think about the idiocy of that claim.

Again, baseless claims with not a shred of evidence.
It is obvious that without time there can be no year therefore no light year. What is baseless is science claiming there is when there can be no evidence for that claim. You could not tell if time existed as we know it far away by looking here at things unfolding IN our time and space. How could you?
 
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Justatruthseeker

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Yes science does. Your denial of the science doesn't change that.


Agreed, your denial of the science will not change anything.

So let me pose a question. If clocks slow under acceleration - and the universe is increasing in acceleration at a rate that was faster than c to begin with - then would this not also mean that clocks speed up as we go backwards in time?????

So on what basis do you use the rate of clocks today to calculate anything in the past - when clocks are changing exponentially as we go backwards in time????

So we can logically conclude that what you take to be billions of years, would, if calculated according to faster clocks against today's time - have passed in a mere blink of geological time.

Remember - the universe is increasing in acceleration - i.e., clocks are continuing to slow as kinetic energy is added.

Kinetic energy - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

"In physics, the kinetic energy of an object is the energy that it possesses due to its motion. It is defined as the work needed to accelerate a body of a given mass from rest to its stated velocity. Having gained this energy during its acceleration, the body maintains this kinetic energy unless its speed changes."

Since it is continuing to increase at an accelerating rate - the kinetic energy is continuing to increase - slowing clocks.

You either accept the science or ignore it, the choice is yours, but ignoring it won't change anything.
 
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sfs

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So let me pose a question. If clocks slow under acceleration - and the universe is increasing in acceleration at a rate that was faster than c to begin with - then would this not also mean that clocks speed up as we go backwards in time?????
No. No, no, no, no. "The universe" is not accelerating; parts of the universe that are distant from us are accelerating relative to us. So clocks in those parts of the universe are slowing down when viewed by us. Clocks where we are, though, like the rocks we're talking about, are just sitting there relative to us, and they're not changing their speed at all, as viewed by us.

Just how stupid do you think physicists are, anyway?
 
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Justatruthseeker

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So this galaxy never accelerated through space to get to it's present position? Only everything else did but us??????

Just how stupid do you think everyone else is????

A bullet to a stationary observer has kinetic energy - but in the bullet's frame it has none - even if you should know better.

And we are to ignore the relativity those physicist's preach? That everything is relative, that if I am on a far distant galaxy it is this galaxy that can be considered to be in an accelerating expansion? How easily one can ignore the science when that same science goes against one.

Motion (physics) - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

"As there is no absolute frame of reference, absolute motion cannot be determined. Thus, everything in the universe can be considered to be moving except light."

According to an observer in a distant galaxy - it would be "this" galaxy that was accelerating with respect to them. Your argument defies the very science you claim to follow.

Absolute time and space - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

"The theory of relativity does not allow the existence of absolute time because of the nonexistence of absolute simultaneity."

http://www.aplusphysics.com/courses/honors/kinematics/honors_relative.html

"An observer on the train itself, however, sitting beside the table with the glass of water, would view the glass of water as remaining stationary from their frame of reference. Because that observer is moving at 50 m/s, and the glass of water is moving at 50 m/s, the observer on the train sees no motion for the cup of water."

So that the observer on the train thinks he and the cup is stationary is just illusion. Just as in the bullet's frame the kinetic energy appears as zero, because the clocks and rulers and measuring devices have also changed with that added energy. This is what you are failing to grasp.
 
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sfs

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So this galaxy never accelerated through space to get to it's present position? Only everything else did but us??????
Your incomprehension of relativity is impressive: it's both broad and deep. The acceleration under discussion is the acceleration of the expansion of space, not the acceleration of bodies through space. It also doesn't matter: as long as you're in the same frame as the thing you're looking at, the acceleration doesn't matter; there is no change to clocks.

Just how stupid do you think everyone else is????
It varies considerably. Do you want me to be more specific?

A bullet to a stationary observer has kinetic energy - but in the bullet's frame it has none - even if you should know better.
Hurray! You've said something true about physics. To be sure, it's a fact that has absolutely nothing to do with the subject at hand, but at least it's a fact.

And we are to ignore the relativity those physicist's preach?
Nope. I'm suggesting you learn something about relativity, so you don't keep saying silly things about it.

That everything is relative, that if I am on a far distant galaxy it is this galaxy that can be considered to be in an accelerating expansion?
Quite correct. So if you're in a distant galaxy, then to you clocks here seem to be slowing. But you're not in a distant galaxy, are you? You're somewhere on Earth, right, along with the rest of us. How do our clocks look to observers here?
 
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dad

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As long as one is in the same time-frame.

Quite correct. So if you're in a distant galaxy, then to you clocks here seem to be slowing. But you're not in a distant galaxy, are you? You're somewhere on Earth, right, along with the rest of us. How do our clocks look to observers here?

Bingo. Our clock is the earth clock. Science assumes the universe is set to it and everything else is relative.
 
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Justatruthseeker

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There is - it has been scientifically proven that clocks slow under acceleration. What you fail to realize is that you notice no change in clocks while in that frame because you as well undergo this change. What, you think only the atoms in clocks change - and not every single atom of everything sharing that frame????????? And they change only when not in your frame????? Support that irrationality with science.

Do you want me to believe that this galaxy was never part of this expansion, that this galaxy alone stayed stationary while all others accelerated away from it? Support that irrationality with science.


It varies considerably. Do you want me to be more specific?
No, I am not asking you to incriminate yourself.


Hurray! You've said something true about physics. To be sure, it's a fact that has absolutely nothing to do with the subject at hand, but at least it's a fact.
Everything I say about physics is true - you and I both know this. It has everything to do with the subject at hand. In this frame you observe no kinetic energy (the bullets frame) but yet you and I both know we are orbiting the sun which is orbiting the galaxy, which is moving through space - and so MUST possess kinetic energy due to its motion. Because your clocks have proportionally changed to the energy of this frame and now tell you there is zero kinetic energy - does not make it so. We are moving through space at an unknown velocity - yet according to our measuring devices are not moving at all - even if we know this to be a false assumption. Yet this is what you assume anyways.


Nope. I'm suggesting you learn something about relativity, so you don't keep saying silly things about it.
I'd suggest you actually understand the theory before you keep showing your lack of understanding. Apparently you do not even understand what the word relative means.


Quite correct. So if you're in a distant galaxy, then to you clocks here seem to be slowing. But you're not in a distant galaxy, are you? You're somewhere on Earth, right, along with the rest of us. How do our clocks look to observers here?
And if I am in the bullets frame I measure no kinetic energy - even if I know in reality the bullet is undergoing acceleration when fired and must possess it. Yet you would have me believe it possesses none because in it's frame none is measured. Until it hits the target and all your claims go out the window.

It doesn't matter how our clocks look to observers here - unless you can show us definitively that this galaxy has never undergone acceleration. Is this what you are claiming????? That of the billions upon billions of galaxies - this one is special and never underwent expansion with the rest of the universe? I don't think even you are that lost in Fairie Dust land.

So if this galaxy underwent expansion - then how are the clocks now, ticking the same rate as they were during an earlier period of lesser acceleration? That you change with the clock and so observe no change - does not mean it does not - as an outside observer will attest.

The person on the train in which the test of clocks was done noticed no change - being part of that change himself - yet it is a test that proved relativity - that clocks slow under acceleration. As the train slows down - the clocks speed up - all without any notice within that frame itself - being every atom of that train and you yourself changed at the same rate the atoms in the clock did.

You know this is correct - so why do you even attempt to dispute it? Simply because you do not like the results of reality and what it means to your timeline???? Had I not mentioned dating methods to the Big bang, you'd be saying yep, yep. Call into question your dogmatic beliefs and suddenly it's nope, nope.

So in reality you want me to believe we are in a special place in the universe where no expansion occurred - as long as I accept we are not in a special place in the universe, right?

Not that expanding space has ever been observed anywhere or at any time in any experiment, but we will play along for the purpose of this issue.
 
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Astrophile

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Can you do the calculations and show quantitatively much clocks speed up as we go back in time, according to your theory of the accelerating expansion of the universe?
 
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sfs

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There is - it has been scientifically proven that clocks slow under acceleration.
Incorrect. It's been scientifically proven that clocks under acceleration slow when observed from a different reference frame. What reference frame are you observing the earth's rocks from?

No clue who you think you're arguing with here, or what point.

Do you want me to believe that this galaxy was never part of this expansion, that this galaxy alone stayed stationary while all others accelerated away from it? Support that irrationality with science.
No, I don't want you to believe that. You are as confused about what I'm saying as you are about all of physics.

Everything I say about physics is true - you and I both know this.
No, Justa, I don't know that.

I'd suggest you actually understand the theory before you keep showing your lack of understanding. Apparently you do not even understand what the word relative means.
Here's a suggestion. Rather than wasting our time accusing each other of not understanding relativistic physics, why don't we each just list all of our published scientific papers that involved relativity. That way we'll be using an objective standard of knowledge. Would you like to go first or shall I?

It doesn't matter how our clocks look to observers here - unless you can show us definitively that this galaxy has never undergone acceleration. Is this what you are claiming?????
It only matters how our clocks look to observers here if you happen to be an observer here. Where are you observing the earth from if not from here?


So what? Why do you care how old an outside observer says the earth is? An outside observer, whatever age they see, will still say that the earth has been around for 4.5 billion times as long as it takes the earth to orbit its sun. An outside observer will still say that the earth has been around for ~50 million times as long as a human lives. An outside observer will still say that the earth has been around for 20,000 times as long as humans have.

That's what relativity means. Everything that's happened in our reference frame scales the same, regardless of what frame it's observed from.

So in reality you want me to believe we are in a special place in the universe where no expansion occurred - as long as I accept we are not in a special place in the universe, right?
You really have no clue at all about what I'm saying, do you?
 
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Loudmouth

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It is obvious that evidence is just a word you have abused here. As for zirkons, what about them? Have you some evidence that zircons were not there with the uranium at some point or something?

Why would U/Pb dating agree with K/Ar dating? Why would two sets of isotopes that are completely independent return the same age for rocks? Why would the ratio of isotopes in rocks also correlate with the types of fossils in and around them? Why can't we find dinosaurs below rocks that date to 1 billion years old?
 
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dad

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Why would U/Pb dating agree with K/Ar dating?

O brother, here we go. Why does Luke agree with John? Why would Roman history agree with Roman gods?

All we need to do is look at one dating method rather than trying to obfuscate things. Since all you do is make the same mistake on other materials, it is expected that skewed results would be somewhat similar.
Why would two sets of isotopes that are completely independent return the same age for rocks?

All that means probably is that there is more parent material in both. Then you stick ages on, depending on the ratios of daughter material. Prove there was no daughter material when this nature started and you might have something. However since you have NO clue when this state started of even so much as whether there was another state, you are totally ill equipped to talk about what the ratios mean!
Why would the ratio of isotopes in rocks also correlate with the types of fossils in and around them?

Circular. You assign old ages to fossils by the rocks.

Why can't we find dinosaurs below rocks that date to 1 billion years old?

All your dates are dino dung.
 
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Loudmouth

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Since all you do is make the same mistake on other materials, it is expected that skewed results would be somewhat similar.

Why is that? Please explain.

All that means probably is that there is more parent material in both.

It is the RATIO of isotopes that matters. That explanation doesn't work.

Prove there was no daughter material when this nature started and you might have something.

It is basic chemistry. We observe that argon outgasses in hot lava. We observe that zircons exclude Pb when they form, and include Uranium. This means that the only source for Pb in a zircon is the decay of U.

However since you have NO clue when this state started . . .

All of the astronomical data demonstrates that the laws of physics have been the same for the last 13 billion years. If you disagree, then show me a single observation that is inconsistent with a same state past.

Circular. You assign old ages to fossils by the rocks.

The age of the rock is entirely independent of the fossil. We use the isotopes in the rocks to date them.
 
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RickG

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Circular. You assign old ages to fossils by the rocks.

We assign ages to fossils by dating the strata in which they are contained. There is nothing circular about it.


All your dates are dino dung.

The proper scientific term for that is "Coprolite", which is defined as fossilized feces.
 
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dad

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Why is that? Please explain.
Because you assume decay (this state) existed.

It is the RATIO of isotopes that matters. That explanation doesn't work.

The ratios are what I was talking about. A pattern of more parent than daughter isotopes. The way you interpret that difference is by believing in a same state past and giving dates accordingly. The actual material doesn't matter.

It is basic chemistry. We observe that argon outgasses in hot lava.
So? How hot did rock used to need to get to melt? You don't know.

As we can see you are citing only how it now works and then delving off the deep end in belief.

We observe that zircons exclude Pb when they form, and include Uranium. This means that the only source for Pb in a zircon is the decay of U.
See above. Who asked you how they NOW form? What are you missing here? Either prove it was the same in the past or you may not use how it now works to model the past. Period. Ever.

All of the astronomical data demonstrates that the laws of physics have been the same for the last 13 billion years.

False. Your belief that time exists and exists as it is on earth, in the heavens is all you demonstrate. That ain't worth a dime.
If you disagree, then show me a single observation that is inconsistent with a same state past.


You have a whole belief set about the same state past that is designed to try to fit the evidence. All that matters is if you can prove the same state past, NOT what may seem some way.

The age of the rock is entirely independent of the fossil. We use the isotopes in the rocks to date them.


"[SIZE=+1]The oldest method is stratigraphy, studying how deeply a fossil is buried. Dinosaur fossils are usually found in sedimentary rock. Sedimentary rock layers (strata) are formed episodically as earth is deposited horizontally over time. Newer layers are formed on top of older layers, pressurizing them into rocks. Paleontologists can estimate the amount of time that has passed since the stratum containing the fossil was formed. Generally, deeper rocks and fossils are older than those found above them.
Observations of the fluctuations of the Earth's magnetic field, which leaves different magnetic fields in rocks from different geological eras.
Dating a fossil in terms of approximately how many years old it is can be possible using radioisotope-dating of igneous rocks found near the fossil. Unstable radioactive isotopes of elements, such as Uranium-235, decay at constant, known rates over time (its half-life, which is over 700 million years). An accurate estimate of the rock's age can be determined by examining the ratios of the remaining radioactive element and its daughters. For example, when lava cools, it has no lead content but it does contain some radioactive Uranium (U-235). Over time, the unstable radioactive Uranium decays into its daughter, Lead-207, at a constant, known rate (its half-life). By comparing the relative proportion of Uranium-235 and Lead-207, the age of the igneous rock can be determined. Potassium-40 (which decays to argon-40) is also used to date fossils.

The half-life of carbon-14 is 5,568 years. That means that half of the C-14 decays (into nitrogen-14) in 5,568 years. Half of the remaining C-14 decays in the next 5,568 years, etc. This is too short a half-life to date dinosaurs; C-14 dating is useful for dating items up to about 50,000 - 60,000 years ago (useful for dating organiams like Neanderthal man and ice age animals).

Radioisotope dating cannot be used directly on fossils since they don't contain the unstable radioactive isotopes used in the dating process. To determine a fossil's age, igneous layers (volcanic rock) beneath the fossil (predating the fossil) and above it (representing a time after the dinosaur's existence) are dated, resulting in a time-range for the dinosaur's life. Thus, dinosaurs are dated with respect to volcanic eruptions."[/SIZE]

[SIZE=+1]http://www.enchantedlearning.com/subjects/dinosaurs/dinofossils/Fossildating.html[/SIZE]
 
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Loudmouth

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Because you assume decay (this state) existed.

Why would that cause U/Pb dates and K/Ar dates to agree with one another?

The ratios are what I was talking about. A pattern of more parent than daughter isotopes. The way you interpret that difference is by believing in a same state past and giving dates accordingly. The actual material doesn't matter.

Why wouldn't we find rocks with all daughter isotopes and no parent isotopes if the past were different? Why do we only find the exact ratios we would expect to find from a same state past?

So? How hot did rock used to need to get to melt? You don't know.

You have never heard of lava? Your head is buried extra deep in the sand today. Are volcanos just another example of demonic delusions?



Who asked you how they NOW form? What are you missing here? Either prove it was the same in the past or you may not use how it now works to model the past. Period. Ever.

We gave you the evidence time and again. Any evidence you don't like you call "demonic delusions" and stick your head in the sand. Until you are ready to deal with the evidence, why should we show you any?
 
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dad

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Why would that cause U/Pb dates and K/Ar dates to agree with one another?


Forget dates, that is your desired interpretation of ratios. Why would ratios have less (what is now) daughter material? Because there was not as much of that material there when the nature changed, I would assume.

To get some perspective, though, the nature change probably happened post flood, so say maybe about 4400 plus years ago. However so called dates line up gazillions of imaginary years beyond that really doesn't matter. There was no such real time.



Why wouldn't we find rocks with all daughter isotopes and no parent isotopes if the past were different? Why do we only find the exact ratios we would expect to find from a same state past?


Simple. Because daughter isotopes were not such a big part of the former process whatever it was. Why would we expect some glaring profusion of that sort of material?? One would assume we were left with what we have now..minus the wee bits that actually did decay since that change 4400 years ago.



You have never heard of lava? Your head is buried extra deep in the sand today. Are volcanos just another example of demonic delusions?

I would think that a rapid moving continent would produce heat, both in melted rock, and actual volcanic activity...exactly as we see.





We gave you the evidence time and again. Any evidence you don't like you call "demonic delusions" and stick your head in the sand. Until you are ready to deal with the evidence, why should we show you any?[/QUOTE]
 
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Loudmouth

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Forget dates, that is your desired interpretation of ratios.

The dates are directly tied to the ratios. You take the ratios and plug them into a mathematical formula, and that is how you get the dates.

So why would ratios of different isotope pairs produce the same date? You simply can not explain that.

Take your head out of the sand and deal with the facts.

Why would ratios have less (what is now) daughter material?

Why would they have any daughter material?

Because there was not as much of that material there when the nature changed, I would assume.

Why would that cause already formed zircons to have Pb in them? Why would this cause the K/Ar and U/Pb dates to match each other?

To get some perspective, though, the nature change probably happened post flood, so say maybe about 4400 plus years ago. However so called dates line up gazillions of imaginary years beyond that really doesn't matter. There was no such real time.

Once again, your head goes right into the sand.
 
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