Jon_
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- Jan 30, 2005
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frumanchu said:Please note, Jon, that I said both are valid but only one is correct. Scripture is what determines which is correct. Logically they are both feasible and reasonable.
I understand what you meant, Fru. I was simply trying to show you that, logically, they are not both feasible and reasonable, especially not at the same time and in the same sense. That violates the law of noncontradiction.
The problem with this application of "unlimited atonement" is that it could literally be applied to almost anything. When we speak of things generically, they are meant to be as inclusive as possible. The issue is the exact opposite: exclusivity; viz., the exclusivity of atonement. Redefining the point to make it as inclusive as possible is just one of the many errors of the Amyraldian argument in favor of it. No one can deny that God preordained atonement. He preordained everything. But this is argument denies the antecedent. Limited atonement asserts that atonement is intended only for the elect because only the elect will be effected by it. In truth, the laws of causality uphold this. An in effective atonement is not an atonement at all.frumanchu said:Jon, I don't think you fully understood what it was I was saying. My understanding of Amyraldianism (assuming it is correct) does not have Christ atoning for the sins of the reprobate. When Christ dies on the cross, it is the sins of the elect (and them only) that are atoned for. The "unlimited" aspect of the atonement is purely in the generic sense prior to the election of men to be individual and particular recipients of that atonement. This is determined in eternity past before the Incarnation and crucifixion take place, so that when they do actually happen in time it is in th context of election and therefore only the sins of the elect are atoned for.
The doctrine isn't "limited plan for atonement."
If you view it as wrong in light of Scripture, then why do you maintain it as valid?frumanchu said:Again, mind you, I do not agree that this is the case in light of Scripture, but I do see it as valid. If I am incorrect and the Amyraldian view is that Christ atoned for all sins on the cross and that the benefits are only applied to the elect, then I do not agree with it. I'm hoping that other Amyraldians can clarify.
My intent is not to be contentious, but to be corrective.
Soli Deo Gloria
Jon
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