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3 Days AND 3 Nights

prodromos

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A holy convocation by definition IS a Sabbath, as there is no work permitted.
No, a distinction is made. Whereas on a Sabbath no work at all is permitted, on a holy convocation no servile work is permitted. Some translations interpret this as not working at their occupations.
Leviticus 23:3-4
23:3 Six days shall work be done: but the seventh day [is] the Sabbath of rest, an holy convocation; ye shall do no work [therein]: it [is] the Sabbath of the "I AM" in all your dwellings.
23:4 These [are] the Feasts of the "I AM", [even] holy convocations, which ye shall proclaim in their seasons.
23:5 In the fourteenth [day] of the first month at evening [is] the "I AM"'s Passover.
23:6 And on the fifteenth day of the same month [is] the Feast of Unleavened Bread unto the "I AM": seven days ye must eat unleavened bread.
23:7 In the first day ye shall have an holy convocation: ye shall do no servile work therein.
23:8 But ye shall offer an offering made by fire unto the "I AM" seven days: in the seventh day [is] an holy convocation: ye shall do no servile work [therein].
As you quoted earlier, it is just as I said.
High Sabbaths
in most Christian and Messianic Jewish usage, are seven annual Biblical festivals and rest days, recorded in the books of Leviticus and Deuteronomy.[1][2][3] This is an extension of the term "high day" found in the King James Version atJohn 19:31-42.

Source: High Sabbaths - Wikipedia
From the same source:
High Sabbaths are considered by Seventh-day Adventists and other seventh-day Sabbath keepers to be a subset of the feast sabbaths. In their view, only those feast sabbaths that coincide with the weekly Sabbath are regarded as High Sabbaths.​
You're not arguing with me, you're arguing with Scriptures
Rubbish, I am arguing with your erroneous interpretation of Scripture which is a recently introduced tradition.
and trying to convince yourself and others that the Scriptures don't mean exactly what they say.

They do. And you should know better.
You are the one who is adding to Scripture, calling certain days Sabbaths which the Scriptures themselves do not do, and calling them "high Sabbaths" which the Scriptures also do not do.
 
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A Freeman

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No, a distinction is made. Whereas on a Sabbath no work at all is permitted, on a holy convocation no servile work is permitted. Some translations interpret this as not working at their occupations.

As you quoted earlier, it is just as I said.

From the same source:
High Sabbaths are considered by Seventh-day Adventists and other seventh-day Sabbath keepers to be a subset of the feast sabbaths. In their view, only those feast sabbaths that coincide with the weekly Sabbath are regarded as High Sabbaths.​

Rubbish, I am arguing with your erroneous interpretation of Scripture which is a recently introduced tradition.

You are the one who is adding to Scripture, calling certain days Sabbaths which the Scriptures themselves do not do, and calling them "high Sabbaths" which the Scriptures also do not do.

Nothing is being added to the Scripture, which itself refers to the First Day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread as a High Day (John 19:31).

You're trying to argue that Friday + Saturday night = 3 nights, and that one holy convocation means something different than another holy convocation, and that a "High Day" has to be on the weekly Sabbath, which simply isn't true.

The first mention of the Sabbath is in Exodus, where we are told the following:

Exodus 20:10 But the seventh day [is] the Sabbath of the "I AM" thy God: [in it] thou shalt not do any work, thou, nor thy son, nor thy daughter, thy manservant, nor thy maidservant, nor thy cattle, nor thy stranger that [is] within thy gates:

Please note well that not only the Israelites but their servants were also to observe the Sabbath and not do any work. Also, the first mention of the Feast of Unleavened Bread is in Exodus, where it is described in the following manner:-

Exodus 12:15 Seven days shall ye eat unleavened bread; even the first day ye shall put away leaven out of your houses: for whosoever eateth leavened bread from the first day until the seventh day, that soul shall be cut off from Israel.
12:16 And in the first day [there shall be] an holy convocation, and in the seventh day there shall be an holy convocation to you; no manner of work shall be done in them, save [that] which every man must eat, that only may be done of you.

Back in Leviticus, we also find the following concerning the other Feasts:-

Leviticus 23:23-39
23:23 And the "I AM" spoke unto Moses, saying,
23:24 Speak unto the children of Israel, saying, In the seventh month, in the first [day] of the month, shall ye have a Sabbath, a memorial of blowing of trumpets, an holy convocation.
23:25 Ye shall do no servile work [therein]: but ye shall offer an offering made by fire unto the "I AM".
23:26 And the "I AM" spoke unto Moses, saying,
23:27 Also on the tenth [day] of this seventh month [there shall be] a Day of Atonement: it shall be an holy convocation unto you; and ye shall afflict your souls, and offer an offering made by fire unto the "I AM".
23:28 And ye shall do no work in that same day: for it [is] a Day of Atonement, to make an atonement for you before the "I AM" your God.
23:29 For whatsoever soul [it be] that shall not be afflicted in that same day, he shall be cut off from among his people.
23:30 And whatsoever soul [it be] that doeth any work in that same day, the same soul will I destroy from among his people.
23:31 Ye shall do no manner of work: [it shall be] a Statute for ever throughout your generations in all your dwellings.
23:32 It [shall be] unto you a Sabbath of rest, and ye shall afflict your souls: in the ninth [day] of the month at evening, from evening unto evening, shall ye celebrate your Sabbath.
23:33 And the "I AM" spoke unto Moses, saying,
23:34 Speak unto the children of Israel, saying, The fifteenth day of this seventh month [shall be] the Feast of Tabernacles [for] seven days unto the "I AM".
23:35 On the first day [shall be] an holy convocation: ye shall do no servile work [therein].
23:36 Seven days ye shall offer an offering made by fire unto the "I AM": on the eighth day shall be an holy convocation unto you; and ye shall offer an offering made by fire unto the "I AM": it [is] a solemn assembly; [and] ye shall do no servile work [therein].
23:37 These [are] the Feasts of the "I AM", which ye shall proclaim [to be] holy convocations, to offer an offering made by fire unto the "I AM", a burnt offering, and a meat offering, a sacrifice, and drink offerings, every thing upon his day:
23:38 Beside the Sabbaths of the "I AM", and beside your gifts, and beside all your vows, and beside all your freewill offerings, which ye give unto the "I AM".
23:39 Also in the fifteenth day of the seventh month, when ye have gathered in the fruit of the land, ye shall keep a feast unto the "I AM" seven days: on the first day [shall be] a Sabbath, and on the eighth day [shall be] a Sabbath.

From the verses above, and the ones from Leviticus already shared regarding the Passover, it should be self-evident that:

1) God considers holy convocations to be Sabbaths, as He uses the terms interchangeably and tells us they will be Sabbaths; and

2) Because of the distances between Sabbaths that mark dates that are not spaced 7 days apart, the Sabbath days associated with the Feasts could not possibly all fall on a weekly Sabbath, even on the Julian and Gregorian calendars, and on the Biblical Enochian calendar they NEVER would; and

3) Making a claim particular to the beliefs of a particular sect of Christianity as proof that a High Sabbath means a Feast Sabbath that happens to land on the weekly Sabbath is not really proof of anything other than what that group believes. It simply doesn't make it so, especially considering the Scriptures prove that assumption to be in error.

What we know from the Gospel accounts is that the body had to be quickly taken down and buried because the Sabbath was fast approaching. This would have left no time for the women to have purchased spices, much less prepare them before the Sabbath, and we know they didn't purchase them until after the Sabbath anyway, according to the Gospel account in Mark.

Mark 16:1 And when the Sabbath was past, Mary Magdalene, and Mary the [mother] of James, and Salome, had bought sweet spices, that they might come and anoint him.
16:2 And very early in the morning the first [day] of the week, they came unto the sepulchre at the rising of the sun.

23:51 (The same had not consented to the counsel and deed of them;) [he was] of Arimathaea, a city of the Jews: who also himself waited for the Kingdom of God.
23:52 This [man] went unto Pilate, and begged the body of Jesus.
23:53 And he took it down, and wrapped it in linen, and laid it in a sepulchre that was hewn in stone, wherein never man before was laid.
23:54 And that day was the preparation, and the Sabbath drew on.
23:55 And the women also, which came with him from Galilee, followed after, and beheld the sepulchre, and how his body was laid.
23:56 And they returned, and prepared spices and ointments; and rested the Sabbath day according to the Commandment.
24:1 Now upon the first [day] of the week, very early in the morning, they came unto the sepulchre, bringing the spices which they had prepared, and certain [others] with them.
24:2 And they found the stone rolled away from the sepulchre.

It says the women bought the spices, etc. AFTER the Sabbath in Mark and then tells us the women prepared the spices, etc. BEFORE resting on the Sabbath in Luke. The only way that is possible is if there were TWO SABBATHS that week with a day in between them. The Sabbath that marked the First Day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread on Thursday and the Weekly Sabbath on Saturday.

The original Greek word s a b b a t w n "sabbaton" means Sabbaths, (plural, more than one), despite being rendered as “Sabbath” (singular) in many different Bible versions.

You've unsuccessfully tried to argue there was only one Sabbath, which is clearly in error. You've likewise tried to argue that the "holy convocations" associated with the Feasts somehow were not Sabbath days when God Himself says they are in Leviticus.

You then tried to argue that the Sabbaths called out for the Feasts are not referred to as High Sabbaths because the 7th day groups say so, even though we have all of the evidence directly from Scripture indicating that there were indeed two Sabbaths that week with a day in between when the women bought and prepared the spices and a reference in John to the first Sabbath day (the First Day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread) being a High Day, or High Sabbath, to distinguish it from the weekly Sabbath.

Finally you tried to introduce the red herring that servile work disqualifies or distinguishes a Sabbath Feast Day from being a Sabbath day in a vain attempt to justify a holy convocation isn't a Sabbath, when God says it is. All to further obfuscate the issue that there were indeed two Sabbaths the week Jesus was crucified.

If you would like to read a nice study on the servile work issue, please see the article at the following link:-

No Work vs. No Servile Work | Messyanic Misfits

which included the following conclusions:-

Bottom Line
It is my understanding that the instructions concerning the work that is forbidden on the Sabbath day is addressing the same work that is forbidden on the other days of holy convocation: “servile work”. Therefore, it seems reasonable to me that the allowance made for the Feast of Unleavened Bread as to what kind of work may be done (“what everyone needs to eat” or “as many things as will necessarily be done by every soul”) would also be the same for the Sabbath day.

The salient point is that the women could have in no way bought or prepared the spices on a Sabbath, as that is forbidden by Law.

You would do well to actually study all of this in detail, with an open-mind, and consider the FACT that we have obviously been lied to by the churches advocating that Friday night + Saturday night are somehow 3 nights, which is calling Christ a liar (Matt. 12:39-40) which is NOT wise (Isa. 5:20-21).

1 + 1 3. Period.

Passover Lamb NOT Easter Bunny
 
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prodromos

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Nothing is being added to the Scripture, which itself refers to the First Day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread as a High Day (John 19:31).
Scripture says that that Sabbath was a high day. It does not say that that day was a high Sabbath. The term "high Sabbath" is found no where in Scripture.
You're trying to argue that Friday + Saturday night = 3 nights,
Strawman. I have never argued that.
and that one holy convocation means something different than another holy convocation, and that a "High Day" has to be on the weekly Sabbath, which simply isn't true.
Another strawman. I am simply stating exactly what John's Gospel states.
The first mention of the Sabbath is in Exodus, where we are told the following:

Exodus 20:10 But the seventh day [is] the Sabbath of the "I AM" thy God: [in it] thou shalt not do any work, thou, nor thy son, nor thy daughter, thy manservant, nor thy maidservant, nor thy cattle, nor thy stranger that [is] within thy gates:

Please note well that not only the Israelites but their servants were also to observe the Sabbath and not do any work. Also, the first mention of the Feast of Unleavened Bread is in Exodus, where it is described in the following manner:-

Exodus 12:15 Seven days shall ye eat unleavened bread; even the first day ye shall put away leaven out of your houses: for whosoever eateth leavened bread from the first day until the seventh day, that soul shall be cut off from Israel.
12:16 And in the first day [there shall be] an holy convocation, and in the seventh day there shall be an holy convocation to you; no manner of work shall be done in them, save [that] which every man must eat, that only may be done of you.

Back in Leviticus, we also find the following concerning the other Feasts:-

Leviticus 23:23-39
23:23 And the "I AM" spoke unto Moses, saying,
23:24 Speak unto the children of Israel, saying, In the seventh month, in the first [day] of the month, shall ye have a Sabbath, a memorial of blowing of trumpets, an holy convocation.
23:25 Ye shall do no servile work [therein]: but ye shall offer an offering made by fire unto the "I AM".
23:26 And the "I AM" spoke unto Moses, saying,
23:27 Also on the tenth [day] of this seventh month [there shall be] a Day of Atonement: it shall be an holy convocation unto you; and ye shall afflict your souls, and offer an offering made by fire unto the "I AM".
23:28 And ye shall do no work in that same day: for it [is] a Day of Atonement, to make an atonement for you before the "I AM" your God.
23:29 For whatsoever soul [it be] that shall not be afflicted in that same day, he shall be cut off from among his people.
23:30 And whatsoever soul [it be] that doeth any work in that same day, the same soul will I destroy from among his people.
23:31 Ye shall do no manner of work: [it shall be] a Statute for ever throughout your generations in all your dwellings.
23:32 It [shall be] unto you a Sabbath of rest, and ye shall afflict your souls: in the ninth [day] of the month at evening, from evening unto evening, shall ye celebrate your Sabbath.
23:33 And the "I AM" spoke unto Moses, saying,
23:34 Speak unto the children of Israel, saying, The fifteenth day of this seventh month [shall be] the Feast of Tabernacles [for] seven days unto the "I AM".
23:35 On the first day [shall be] an holy convocation: ye shall do no servile work [therein].
23:36 Seven days ye shall offer an offering made by fire unto the "I AM": on the eighth day shall be an holy convocation unto you; and ye shall offer an offering made by fire unto the "I AM": it [is] a solemn assembly; [and] ye shall do no servile work [therein].
23:37 These [are] the Feasts of the "I AM", which ye shall proclaim [to be] holy convocations, to offer an offering made by fire unto the "I AM", a burnt offering, and a meat offering, a sacrifice, and drink offerings, every thing upon his day:
23:38 Beside the Sabbaths of the "I AM", and beside your gifts, and beside all your vows, and beside all your freewill offerings, which ye give unto the "I AM".
23:39 Also in the fifteenth day of the seventh month, when ye have gathered in the fruit of the land, ye shall keep a feast unto the "I AM" seven days: on the first day [shall be] a Sabbath, and on the eighth day [shall be] a Sabbath.

From the verses above, and the ones from Leviticus already shared regarding the Passover, it should be self-evident that:

1) God considers holy convocations to be Sabbaths, as He uses the terms interchangeably and tells us they will be Sabbaths; and
Not true. Some days are specifically called Sabbaths while the others aren't.
2) Because of the distances between Sabbaths that mark dates that are not spaced 7 days apart, the Sabbath days associated with the Feasts could not possibly all fall on a weekly Sabbath, even on the Julian and Gregorian calendars, and on the Biblical Enochian calendar they NEVER would; and
Strawman. I have never argued that the other feast days referred to as Sabbaths, had to fall on the weekly Sabbath.
3) Making a claim particular to the beliefs of a particular sect of Christianity as proof that a High Sabbath means a Feast Sabbath that happens to land on the weekly Sabbath is not really proof of anything other than what that group believes. It simply doesn't make it so, especially considering the Scriptures prove that assumption to be in error.
Another strawman. You quoted that source as evidence that Christians understand the term "high Sabbaths" as referring to the "Holy Convocations" of Lev 23. I simply pointed out that your same source also said otherwise. I'm glad you agree that your source is not proof of anything. If you had anything from Jewish sources as to how they interpret Lev 23, that would be worth considering, but you've thus far only offered the interpretations of modern Christian sects.
What we know from the Gospel accounts is that the body had to be quickly taken down and buried because the Sabbath was fast approaching. This would have left no time for the women to have purchased spices, much less prepare them before the Sabbath, and we know they didn't purchase them until after the Sabbath anyway, according to the Gospel account in Mark.

Mark 16:1 And when the Sabbath was past, Mary Magdalene, and Mary the [mother] of James, and Salome, had bought sweet spices, that they might come and anoint him.
16:2 And very early in the morning the first [day] of the week, they came unto the sepulchre at the rising of the sun.

23:51 (The same had not consented to the counsel and deed of them;) [he was] of Arimathaea, a city of the Jews: who also himself waited for the Kingdom of God.
23:52 This [man] went unto Pilate, and begged the body of Jesus.
23:53 And he took it down, and wrapped it in linen, and laid it in a sepulchre that was hewn in stone, wherein never man before was laid.
23:54 And that day was the preparation, and the Sabbath drew on.
23:55 And the women also, which came with him from Galilee, followed after, and beheld the sepulchre, and how his body was laid.
23:56 And they returned, and prepared spices and ointments; and rested the Sabbath day according to the Commandment.
24:1 Now upon the first [day] of the week, very early in the morning, they came unto the sepulchre, bringing the spices which they had prepared, and certain [others] with them.
24:2 And they found the stone rolled away from the sepulchre.

It says the women bought the spices, etc. AFTER the Sabbath in Mark and then tells us the women prepared the spices, etc. BEFORE resting on the Sabbath in Luke. The only way that is possible is if there were TWO SABBATHS that week with a day in between them. The Sabbath that marked the First Day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread on Thursday and the Weekly Sabbath on Saturday.
No, the Greek does not require the "had bought" to refer to a time after the Sabbath, it simply means they had bought them earlier. The other Gospel account tells us they had in fact bought them on Friday.
The original Greek word s a b b a t w n "sabbaton" means Sabbaths, (plural, more than one), despite being rendered as “Sabbath” (singular) in many different Bible versions.
You betray your complete lack of knowledge of Greek grammar.
You've unsuccessfully tried to argue there was only one Sabbath, which is clearly in error.
You are wrong.
You've likewise tried to argue that the "holy convocations" associated with the Feasts somehow were not Sabbath days when God Himself says they are in Leviticus.
Once again you are wrong.
You then tried to argue that the Sabbaths called out for the Feasts are not referred to as High Sabbaths because the 7th day groups say so, even though we have all of the evidence directly from Scripture indicating that there were indeed two Sabbaths that week with a day in between when the women bought and prepared the spices and a reference in John to the first Sabbath day (the First Day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread) being a High Day, or High Sabbath, to distinguish it from the weekly Sabbath.
You are making a habit of being wrong.
Finally you tried to introduce the red herring that servile work disqualifies or distinguishes a Sabbath Feast Day from being a Sabbath day in a vain attempt to justify a holy convocation isn't a Sabbath, when God says it is. All to further obfuscate the issue that there were indeed two Sabbaths the week Jesus was crucified.
All wrong. There was only one Sabbath as the Scriptures clearly state. It is only because of your misunderstanding a figure of speech that you have to go to all of this trouble to justify your claim that there were two Sabbaths.
If you would like to read a nice study on the servile work issue, please see the article at the following link:-

No Work vs. No Servile Work | Messyanic Misfits

which included the following conclusions:-

Bottom Line
It is my understanding that the instructions concerning the work that is forbidden on the Sabbath day is addressing the same work that is forbidden on the other days of holy convocation: “servile work”. Therefore, it seems reasonable to me that the allowance made for the Feast of Unleavened Bread as to what kind of work may be done (“what everyone needs to eat” or “as many things as will necessarily be done by every soul”) would also be the same for the Sabbath day.
Extremely odd that he makes no reference to the Talmud. I would be interested to hear what the opinions of the Jewish religious authorities had to say on the issue, but this guy's personal opinions, not so much.
The salient point is that the women could have in no way bought or prepared the spices on a Sabbath, as that is forbidden by Law.
Dealt with that earlier.
You would do well to actually study all of this in detail, with an open-mind, and consider the FACT that we have obviously been lied to by the churches advocating that Friday night + Saturday night are somehow 3 nights, which is calling Christ a liar (Matt. 12:39-40) which is NOT wise (Isa. 5:20-21).

1 + 1 3. Period.
Since we do not argue that Friday night + Saturday night equals 3 nights you would do well to cease arguing against that strawman as it just makes you look foolish.
Since you link to this rubbish site again, I will ask you again since you did not answer.
Do you believe that the Koran is part of Scripture, since the site you are endorsing does?
 
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A Freeman

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Scripture says that that Sabbath was a high day. It does not say that that day was a high Sabbath. The term "high Sabbath" is found no where in Scripture.

Strawman. I have never argued that.

Another strawman. I am simply stating exactly what John's Gospel states.



Not true. Some days are specifically called Sabbaths while the others aren't.

Strawman. I have never argued that the other feast days referred to as Sabbaths, had to fall on the weekly Sabbath.

Another strawman. You quoted that source as evidence that Christians understand the term "high Sabbaths" as referring to the "Holy Convocations" of Lev 23. I simply pointed out that your same source also said otherwise. I'm glad you agree that your source is not proof of anything. If you had anything from Jewish sources as to how they interpret Lev 23, that would be worth considering, but you've thus far only offered the interpretations of modern Christian sects.

No, the Greek does not require the "had bought" to refer to a time after the Sabbath, it simply means they had bought them earlier. The other Gospel account tells us they had in fact bought them on Friday.

You betray your complete lack of knowledge of Greek grammar.

You are wrong.

Once again you are wrong.

You are making a habit of being wrong.

All wrong. There was only one Sabbath as the Scriptures clearly state. It is only because of your misunderstanding a figure of speech that you have to go to all of this trouble to justify your claim that there were two Sabbaths.

Extremely odd that he makes no reference to the Talmud. I would be interested to hear what the opinions of the Jewish religious authorities had to say on the issue, but this guy's personal opinions, not so much.

Dealt with that earlier.

Since we do not argue that Friday night + Saturday night equals 3 nights you would do well to cease arguing against that strawman as it just makes you look foolish.

Since you link to this rubbish site again, I will ask you again since you did not answer.
Do you believe that the Koran is part of Scripture, since the site you are endorsing does?

You have all the evidence needed from the previous posts made on this subject.

Perhaps you should look over your previous posts before falsely claiming something is a strawman when it isn't. You clearly like to argue about things you know nothing about instead of admitting your errors and learning from them.

Learn to destroy your ego or it will destroy you.

God Bless.
 
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prodromos

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You have all the evidence needed from the previous posts made on this subject.
Likewise.
Perhaps you should look over your previous posts before falsely claiming something is a strawman when it isn't. You clearly like to argue about things you know nothing about instead of admitting your errors and learning from them.
I know exactly what I have argued and what you have supposedly responded to isn't what I have argued. That is a strawman.
Learn to destroy your ego or it will destroy you.
You should heed your own advice.
You still haven't answered my question. Do you believe the Koran is part of Scripture, since the author of the site you keep linking to certainly does.
 
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prodromos

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You still haven't answered my question. Do you believe the Koran is part of Scripture, since the author of the site you keep linking to certainly does.
And don't get me started on any of the other nutcase revelations on that site. I'm astounded that anyone professing to follow Christ would use the site as an authority on anything regarding Christianity.
 
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pshun2404

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  • Ten times it was specified that the resurrection would take place on the "third day" (Mat.16:21; 17:23; 20:19; Mark 9:31; 10:34, Luke 9:22; 13:32; 18:33; 24:7,46).
  • On five occasions they said, "in three days" (Matthew 26:61; 27:40, Mark 15:29, John 2:19-20), same thing.
  • And one time only Jesus spoke of His death as "three days and three nights" (Matthew 12:40).
Without question, all of these various expressions are used to describe the very same event. There seems to be no controversy regarding this point. "The third day," "in three days," "after three days," and "three days and three nights" are equivalent terms used in the scripture in reference to the resurrection of Jesus. Therefore the last phrase mentioned here is understood differently than one would understand it if judging Hebrew thought and language by the rules of modern grammatical usage so I hope the following helps clear it up for you (unless you have gotten stuck in a thinking loop and unable to reason past this one passage to grasp all that is said…this is not meant ot be insulting but having been there I know the problem personally)

See now how Jewish people understood these matters. The Jewish Encyclopedia, Volume 4, page 475 gives us a perfect example

"A short time in the morning of the seventh day is counted as the seventh day; circumcision takes place on the eighth day, even though, of the first day only a few minutes after the birth of the child, these being counted as one day."

Noah: In Genesis 7:4, God said to Noah, "For yet seven days, and I will cause it to rain upon the earth." But in verse 10 we read, "And it came to pass after seven days, that the waters of the flood were upon the earth." The marginal reading expresses it in the literal Hebrew as "on the seventh day."

Pity the poor chronologer who tries to figure that one out! When did the flood come? In seven days? On the seventh day? Or after seven days? The answer is simple when the Hebrew inclusive reckoning is applied. The day on which God spoke to Noah counted as the first day, and the day on which it started raining was the seventh day. Even if God spoke just ten minutes before the end of that first day, it was still counted as one of the seven. And if it started raining at noon on the last day, it was also counted one of the seven.

Circumcision: The same principle is revealed in the circumcision of babies. Genesis 17:12 specifies "he that is eight days old." In our mind to be eight days old = after 8days (7 or even 7 and a 1/2) does not = 8) But Luke 1:59 reads "on the eighth day." Yet the same Luke 2:21 uses still another expression: "When eight days were accomplished." Yet this is ON the 8th day.

Joseph: Further proof for inclusive reckoning is seen in Joseph's dealing with his brethren. Genesis 42:17-19 says "He put them all together in jail for three days. And Joseph said unto them on the third day, This do, and live; ... go ye. ..."

Taxes: Consider also the tax issue between King Rehoboam and the people. 2 Chronicles 10:5,12 says, "Come again unto me after three days. ... So ... all the people came to Rehoboam on the third day."

Sound Hermeneutics interprets the one in kight of the many and does not try to force the many into the one....if 3 full 24 hour periods were being implied then Christ rose on the 4th day and the writer confused people because Hebrew thinks in terms of evening to morning not morning then evening.
 
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pshun2404

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See Esther 4

15 Then Esther bade them return Mordecai this answer,

16 Go, gather together all the Jews that are present in Shushan, and all of you fast for me, and neither eat nor drink for three days and three nights (some translations say “for three days; day and night)

She then says “I also and my maidens will fast likewise; and so will I go in unto the king, which is not according to the law: and if I perish, I perish.

17 So Mordecai went his way, and did according to all that Esther had commanded him.

Now 5

5 Now it came to pass on the third day that Esther put on her royal apparel, and stood in the inner court of the king's house, over against the king's house: and the king sat upon his royal throne in the royal house, over against the gate of the house.

She and her maids prayed and fasted for "three days and three nights" when then she would don her royal apparel and go in to see the King YET it is on the their day that she does this (not the fourth following a third night) and this made perfect sense to all Hebrews who read this (and to most gentiles)...she was clearly NOT referring to a literal 72 hour period having to pass.
 
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pshun2404

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Jesus was crucified and buried before sunset on the "day" (our Thurs eve/Fri morn) before the 7th day Sabbath (which is our Fri eve/Sat morn, not Thurs/Fri)...the fact that the first day of Unleavened Bread (a High Holy Sabbath) was ALSO that day in that year is not merely coincidental. God knew this and that is why Jesus could so accurately predict His resurrection "ON" the third day of the alleged 3 days and 3 nights (being raised "early" on the third day makes it very, very, clear there was no literal third night...because He was to be the “firstfruits” from the dead (which always and only happens of a 1st day following a 7th day Sabbath).


This is not confusing at all...I do not see why it is difficult for some to get past their block against this reality (on the third day does not equal after a third day and a third night, but still fits as far as the Hebraism is concerned)...are they striving to find fault with the scriptures? Or just the guidance of the Spirit and the Apostles in communicating these things as if God is the author of this confusion (where there never was any for over 18 centuries)?
 
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birdetto

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I don't really consider different cultures' holidays to coincide much with Bible accuracy, and for this reason I have never really gravitated to holidays much, though so many people get so involved in them. These holidays often move right into 'church' doctrine in people's minds, which is a little sad. A person can celebrate holidays (little kids like a lot of holidays), but it really should not become church doctrine, like saying Jesus was really born on Dec 25, or thinking that Good Friday to Sunday is 3 full days. Fortunately, we read in Colossians: "Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ." Even the Jewish holidays which were Biblically accurate are said to be simply a shadow but not the real, the real being Christ.
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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From “Good” Friday to Easter Sunday: can Christians not count to 3?

Yes, WE can...it is too bad you cant. I am so tired of explaining this every year because people don't or won't...
 
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A Freeman

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Matthew 12:39
12:39 But he answered and said unto them, An evil and unfaithfull generation seeketh after a sign; and there shall no sign be given to it, but the sign of the prophet Jonah:
12:40 For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of Man be THREE DAYS AND THREE NIGHTS in the heart of the earth.

Friday + Saturday night = 2 nights

There are none so blind as those who refuse to see.

Stop believing the blind guides of organized religion and start believing Christ. He is the Truth (John 14:6).

Passover Lamb NOT Easter Bunny
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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There are none so blind as those who refuse to see.

Stop believing the blind guides of organized religion and start believing Christ.

You can include yourself as one...
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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Read the account of the witnesses on the road to Emmaus and see if you can count correctly...remember, it was a Sunday afternoon when it starts...and they say, TODAY (Sunday) is the third day since the events of the 14th happened. So Sunday is day 3...Saturday would be day 2 and what would Friday be...? Yes, the day those events happened...the 14th.
 
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klutedavid

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Christ prophesied the following about the time between the crucifixion and the resurrection:

Matthew 12:39-40

12:39 But he answered and said unto them, An evil and unfaithfull generation seeketh after a sign; and there shall no sign be given to it, but the sign of the prophet Jonah:
12:40 For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of Man be three days AND three nights in the heart of the earth.
Hello Freeman.

Here are are two verses from the same Gospel account, that indicate a third day resurrection.

Matthew 16:21
From that time Jesus began to show His disciples that He must go to Jerusalem, and suffer many things from the elders and chief priests and scribes, and be killed, and be raised up on the third day.

Matthew 17:23
...and they will kill Him, and He will be raised on the third day.

Jesus rose on the third day and that is strongly supported by the scripture.

If you say that Jesus rose AFTER the third day, then you are in error.
 
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klutedavid

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  • Ten times it was specified that the resurrection would take place on the "third day" (Mat.16:21; 17:23; 20:19; Mark 9:31; 10:34, Luke 9:22; 13:32; 18:33; 24:7,46).
  • On five occasions they said, "in three days" (Matthew 26:61; 27:40, Mark 15:29, John 2:19-20), same thing.
  • And one time only Jesus spoke of His death as "three days and three nights" (Matthew 12:40).
Without question, all of these various expressions are used to describe the very same event. There seems to be no controversy regarding this point. "The third day," "in three days," "after three days," and "three days and three nights" are equivalent terms used in the scripture in reference to the resurrection of Jesus. Therefore the last phrase mentioned here is understood differently than one would understand it if judging Hebrew thought and language by the rules of modern grammatical usage so I hope the following helps clear it up for you (unless you have gotten stuck in a thinking loop and unable to reason past this one passage to grasp all that is said…this is not meant ot be insulting but having been there I know the problem personally)

See now how Jewish people understood these matters. The Jewish Encyclopedia, Volume 4, page 475 gives us a perfect example

"A short time in the morning of the seventh day is counted as the seventh day; circumcision takes place on the eighth day, even though, of the first day only a few minutes after the birth of the child, these being counted as one day."

Noah: In Genesis 7:4, God said to Noah, "For yet seven days, and I will cause it to rain upon the earth." But in verse 10 we read, "And it came to pass after seven days, that the waters of the flood were upon the earth." The marginal reading expresses it in the literal Hebrew as "on the seventh day."

Pity the poor chronologer who tries to figure that one out! When did the flood come? In seven days? On the seventh day? Or after seven days? The answer is simple when the Hebrew inclusive reckoning is applied. The day on which God spoke to Noah counted as the first day, and the day on which it started raining was the seventh day. Even if God spoke just ten minutes before the end of that first day, it was still counted as one of the seven. And if it started raining at noon on the last day, it was also counted one of the seven.

Circumcision: The same principle is revealed in the circumcision of babies. Genesis 17:12 specifies "he that is eight days old." In our mind to be eight days old = after 8days (7 or even 7 and a 1/2) does not = 8) But Luke 1:59 reads "on the eighth day." Yet the same Luke 2:21 uses still another expression: "When eight days were accomplished." Yet this is ON the 8th day.

Joseph: Further proof for inclusive reckoning is seen in Joseph's dealing with his brethren. Genesis 42:17-19 says "He put them all together in jail for three days. And Joseph said unto them on the third day, This do, and live; ... go ye. ..."

Taxes: Consider also the tax issue between King Rehoboam and the people. 2 Chronicles 10:5,12 says, "Come again unto me after three days. ... So ... all the people came to Rehoboam on the third day."

Sound Hermeneutics interprets the one in kight of the many and does not try to force the many into the one....if 3 full 24 hour periods were being implied then Christ rose on the 4th day and the writer confused people because Hebrew thinks in terms of evening to morning not morning then evening.
Hello Pshun.

Very good summation.
 
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klutedavid

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Hello Freeman.

You made the following statements.
Until it is CLEARLY understood that there were TWO SABBATHS the week that Jesus was crucified, people will WRONGLY assume that the crucifixion occurred on a Friday.
The scripture does not say that there were two Sabbaths, the week that Jesus was crucified.
John 19:31 The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the Sabbath day, (for that Sabbath day was an HIGH DAY [The Passover - Wednesday 21/4/34],) besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and [that] they might be taken away.
The Sabbath was a high day because it occurred during the feast of unleavened bread.
The Last Supper that Jesus had with His disciples was the PASSOVER. The Feast of Unleavened Bread, which lasts a week, begins the next day, and is marked by a High Sabbath on both the first and last day of the feast.
This is incorrect Freeman, you need to read the scripture very carefully.

Leviticus 23
23:7 In the first day ye shall have an holy convocation: ye shall do no servile work therein.

This verse does not state that this day is a Sabbath, that is impossible. The Sabbath is the seventh day taken from the Genesis account. Tell me how a seventh day can be a first day?

Leviticus only says that this day is a holy convocation it does not say a Sabbath day.
The crucifixion took place on a WEDNESDAY, exactly as prophesied (Dan. 9:27). They had to get the body of Jesus down before sunset, because at sunset the Feast of Unleavened Bread, which is a High Sabbath, would begin.
So Daniel prophesied that the crucifixion would take place on Wednesday?

Daniel 9
27 And he will make a firm covenant with the many for one week, but in the middle of the week he will put a stop to sacrifice and grain offering; and on the wing of abominations will come one who makes desolate...

I cannot see any prophecy of a Wednesday crucifixion in that verse.
No work or commerce is allowed on the Sabbath day. So the women had to wait until Friday, the day in between the High Sabbath and the Weekly Sabbath,
A holy convocation is not a Sabbath day, the scripture never states that two Sabbaths can occur in one week. That is the same as saying, next week is the week with two Saturdays.

If you wish to make claims, then provide the scripture that supports the claims.
 
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A Freeman

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Why is there an Easter & what does it mean?

Why did Christ have to be crucified?

THE PASSOVER - 1500 B.C.- foreshadowing the Second Passover.

The Israelites were in Egypt, in slavery, under the rule and laws of evil men. The word British is Hebrew and means the "People of the Covenant"; that means, the "People Israel of the Covenant".

The Passover was where the "angel of death" passed over the houses of the Israelites and killed the first-born of Egypt, from EVERY household including the pharaoh's (the king). It foreshadows the Second Passover because a lamb was sacrificed and its blood used to paint around the door of every Israelite house, to save them from death, just as the death of THE "Lamb of God" - Jesus and His blood, saved the entire nation from death at Passover, 1500 years later.

The Passover and the lamb's blood was the thing, that brought about, the end of 400 years of slavery and oppression, under the rules and laws of man, to FREEDOM under the Rule of God; His Laws and Economics, given to Moses and the British (Israel) people at Sinai.

THE SECOND PASSOVER - Wednesday 21 st April, 34 A.D. - NOT Easter of 33 AD.

It was the Second Passover because the "Lamb" died, instead of the entire nation, who were under "The Curse of The Law". What curse and why? The Law was not a curse but a blessing, to all those who kept it (God's Law, not man's) and was a "school-teacher to bring men to Christ" - the Head-"Master".

So what was this Curse of The Law, that had condemned the entire nation to death?

As the British (Israel) left Egypt and slavery, hoping to never become slaves again - "Rule Britannia" (think about the words - you all know them) - they swore that they would never kneel to any man, EVER again, only to God Who had given them freedom from the rule of evil men. BUT, a human's word and memory is cheap and short.

At Sinai, in Horeb, Moses was given God's Laws; Statutes; Judgements; Agricultural and Economic Policies, so that the British (Israel) could live in prosperity and freedom, from oppression under selfish men's laws and economic policies.

The entire British nation accepted the contract (Covenant) that had been made, at first, with Abraham their father because he did not withhold his only son, the "miracle" child Isaac, on top of Mt. Moriah.

Under The Covenant (contract), the British swore a solemnly binding oath, that you would KEEP and DO everything that God had commanded to Moses, FOR EVER and would be God's servant nation, His wife and faithful to the marriage-contract (The Covenant) and His Demonstration People to the rest of the world.

That demonstration, was, to show the rest of the world, how wonderful it was to live under God's Laws and Economics, as opposed to men's evil systems (all of them including "so-called" democracy).

Under the terms of the marriage-contract God gave the British (Israel) the "Land Flowing with Milk and Honey" - the milk of human kindness and sweetness - the land of Israel.

He said that as long as they kept His ways and did not commit adultery (unfaithfulness to Him or each other), He would bring the sun and rain in their seasons and He would make their crops grow abundantly and they would want for nothing. They would live in peace and safety and be happy and prosperous, with no need for crime, as there would be no poverty and everyone would love and help each other. ("Love your neighbour as much as you love yourself").

The idea behind this, was, so that the gentile nations, outside of Israel, would see how wonderful it was to live under God's system and want it for themselves.

They would have two options and would choose the wrong one first, as humans always do, and that would be to try to take Israel by force and steal what they had. BUT, under The Covenant (marriage-contract), God had promised the British that He (as a husband protects his wife) would fight their enemies FOR them, and defeat them and that one British man would chase a thousand and they would flee in terror.

So, then, the gentiles would have to take option two - "if you can't beat them, join them" and they would come to the British (Israel) and ask if they could join them. Whereupon, they would be told, yes, IF they agreed to keep The Covenant too. This was to be "the grafting into Israel of the Gentiles", so that, little by little, the borders of Israel would enlarge to take in these gentile nations and eventually the whole world would become the Kingdom of Israel and God's Kingdom on Earth, with justice; freedom; safety and prosperity for everyone, not just the strong, powerful and rich, like under men's evil laws.

However, they broke their promise and The Covenant and allowed greedy; selfish; evil people, from amongst their own nation, to make up their own laws; economics and customs, to make the COMMANDMENTS of God of no effect. Because of this going away from God's Laws and Economic Policy, given in the Books of Moses (the 1st five Books of the Bible), and turning to man's laws in the "Talmud", the people became slaves again. This time they were not the slaves of foreigners but of the rich people whom they had allowed to make up laws to cheat them and make them poor and themselves rich - people from within their own nation.

So they had broken the contract and were not giving God's Demonstration, as they had promised, and would not be able to help God to bring the Gentiles into the Kingdom, as there was nothing worth joining. The system had become no better than a gentile one.

The curse then came into force. Under The Covenant were blessings for keeping the contract and penalty clauses or "Curses" for breaking the contract. As they had broken the contract they came under The Curse (penalty clause) and that curse was death, for the whole nation. They had already sold themselves back into slavery, and poverty and death was to follow.

So, once again the nation needed to be freed from slavery and death, just like in the Passover in Egypt, 1500 years before.

As The Covenant came into being because Abraham did not withhold his "miracle" son Isaac, the ONLY way to save the entire nation from death, was for God to annul (cancel) the contract and the ONLY way He could do that, was by sacrificing His own "miracle" Son from the "Virgin-birth", unless the nation accepted His Son's Sovereignty and returned to His Laws and their duty under the Old Covenant, accepted at Sinai, in Horeb.

This they refused to do, so the contract had to be cancelled and the only way to do that was for God's Son to be sacrificed, instead of the whole nation.

The New Contract (Testament) then came into existence for those who wanted "Life" and freedom. It was necessary to sacrifice THE "Lamb" to free the people from slavery, poverty and death under the curse and under men's evil laws in the Jewish Talmud, and return them to freedom, under God's Laws, in the Bible, once again; under the New Covenant (Testament).

There should not be an Easter; it should be the Second Passover because it happened at exactly the same time of year. Jesus and the Disciples' "Last Supper" was the "Feast of the Passover", and the setting up of the New Covenant (Testament)(marriage-contract), under which, IF everyone returned to God's Laws and Ways and to serving ONLY Him, they could have "Life", and freedom.

So where did Easter come from? Easter comes from the word Ishtar, who was a Babylonian pagan fertility goddess of the Babylonian Mystery Religion of Sun-worship on Sundays; which is why it is celebrated with eggs, because eggs are a sign of fertility. Easter is a totally pagan festival that has absolutely nothing to do with Jesus; the Crucifixion, which was the Second-Passover; or serving God.

In order to serve only God, which is the first and most important of the COMMANDments, and to do His Will (Islam in Arabic), they would have to learn to communicate with Him, so He could teach them how to, "be ye perfect, even as your Father in heaven IS perfect".

If people did this, they would reap the benefit from Divine Wisdom; Love; Law and Justice, instead of the evil, that comes from the rule of men who are guided by Satan and his selfish; hateful; greedy; unjust and destructive ways.

The priests; lawyers and politicians had made up their own laws, in the "Talmud" and misled the people (the blind leading the blind) away from freedom, into their evil system, which made and kept them all rich and powerful and allowed them to prey on the people and steal the people's share of the wealth, under their home-made, illegal and fraudulent laws (James 5:4) and economics (Isaiah 3:12-15 and Ezekiel 34:2, 8).

Therefore the priesthood and false system had to be abolished and IT WAS abolished forever, at The Crucifixion, to make way for the return of God's Rule and Ways, and the New Covenant, under which there was only ONE priest - THE High Priest - Christ (Ezekiel 34:10, 23).

At the Crucifixion the Temple Veil was torn in two, from top to bottom, and totally destroyed -WHY? What was the significance of The Veil, that made it so important, that God needed to destroy it, at The Crucifixion?

For the answer we have to go back in time 2000 years, to around 2000 B.C., to the time of Abraham and Isaac. God chose Abraham because he believed and served only God and NO-ONE else and it was accounted to him for righteousness. Abraham was willing to give up the most precious thing to him, on Earth - his "miracle" son, on Mt.Moriah. Remember Mt. Moriah.

Later, the shepherd boy, king David, asked God if he could build a house for God to live in. He was answered, "Am I a man that I need a house to live in?" I am God and I need no house. I live in the heart of every man that invites Me in to live with him, so I can teach him how to be good (like God).

However, because king David had been God's "well-beloved" servant, God decided to allow David's son Solomon to build Him a house (Temple) on MT. MORIAH, where Abraham had taken Isaac to offer him as a sacrifice to God, centuries before.

That Temple or church is the ONLY one that God has EVER given man permission to build and it is Satan and his priests (who blasphemously claim to work for God) who have built ALL the others of EVERY denomination. He does not want a house to live in, He wants to live in your hearts, as a welcome guest to teach you how to be like Him - good.

The Temple, on Mt. Moriah, had an outer court-yard and an inner sanctuary, which was called "The Holy of Holies" - the most sacred spot on Earth, the exact place where Abraham offered up Isaac and it was known as THE Holy Place. This "Holy of Holies" was separated from the outer-court of the Temple by the "Temple Veil" (curtain).

NO-ONE was allowed to enter the "Holy of Holies" EXCEPT the "High Priest", who went in there to communicate with God.

When THE "High-Priest of all time" was crucified by the jewish priests; lawyers and politicians, for challenging their authority, and the "Temple Veil" to the "Holy of Holies" was destroyed, this was to show the world that, from that moment on, the priest-hood was abolished FOR EVER, except for Christ Himself. Since then, through His teachings, of the New Testament (Covenant), EVERYONE has had DIRECT ACCESS TO GOD, if they follow the teachings EXACTLY as written and not as misinterpreted and corrupted by Satan's priests, who have the audacity to say they serve Christ, when they do the opposite of what Christ says. Thereby misleading the people away from God again and into believing that God lives in a house and outside of their hearts, which is the opposite of what God wants. They teach people to sing silly songs, that help no-one, instead of teaching Christ's Teachings, about how to learn from God, how to make the world a better, fairer and safer place, free from poverty and crime, as they should be doing.

Anyone who has not signed up for the New Covenant, in its entirety, is as good as "dead", because you are still under The Curse (penalty clause) of the Old Covenant - slavery and death.

There is still time but only just. Read Isaiah 42:7 and my "Hand-book for Prisoners, Prison Officers and Governors" - print out or send for a copy to send to your local prison, and/or people you know, or know of, who have been imprisoned.

You are ALL in slavery to the rich and in poverty and always have been because you have not kept The Covenant and have allowed evil, selfish people, to make up illegal laws and economic systems, to cheat you and make you poor and drive some of you to crime to survive and feed your families, exactly as God warned you more than 3000 years ago, by His prophet, TO YOU, Isaiah. Read Isaiah 3:12-15 and Isaiah 42:20-22 for yourself. See what it REALLY says.

You can set yourselves and the entire working-class FREE, from poverty and injustice, by keeping The Covenant, "Fighting for the Kingdom and Justice for ALL" and for a return to Freedom under God's Laws of Liberty and Economics, instead of imprisonment or slavery under Her Majesty's; Congress'; or anyone else's illegal laws and economics.

The New Covenant is waiting for YOU to accept it and do your half, so that God and I can do Ours, and it has been waiting for 2000 years for you to come to your senses and open your eyes and ears and listen to Us, and ONLY Us.

* * The Essenes and the Disciples called themselves "The Covenanters" and the early disciples called themselves "Followers of The Way", NOT christians.

Copyright © 1991 - JAH - all rights reserved.

If you want to know The TRUTH read "The Way home or face The Fire" and my other Booklets.


There is no Good Friday: it was on a Wednesday.

Most people have been wrongly taught and therefore believe that Jesus only taught for 3 and 1/2 years and was crucified at Ishtar of 33 AD, so please do not take what I am going to say as something personal against any of you. It is not meant to be taken personally by anyone and is only meant to straighten out the common misunderstanding and set the record straight, as this site is dedicated to truth.

This teaching of 3 and 1/2 years, of course, is untrue, like most things you have been taught by your blind guides, and a close look at all of what Daniel the Old Testament Prophet wrote will prove it to be untrue.

Daniel 9:26 And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and The Sanctuary; and the end thereof [shall be] with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined.
9:27 And he shall confirm The Covenant with many for ONE WEEK: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations He shall make [it] desolate, even until the consummation (the "Lake of Hell-Fire"), and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.

So here we have the proof that God said the Messiah would confirm The Covenant (New Covenant prophesied in Ezekiel 34) for ONE WEEK, meaning SEVEN years. Seven years, NOT three and a half years. The reference to being cut off in the midst (middle) of the week therefore cannot possibly refer to the number of years, but only to the day of the week - Wednesday, not Friday as the pagan so-called christian churches teach, just like they teach the false date of Jesus' birth as being Dec. 25th.

They have done the same with the Crucifixion. It was on a Wednesday the middle of the week, not on Friday the sixth day of the week.

Jesus arose from the dead on the Sabbath Day - Saturday - three days and three nights after the Wednesday mid-week Crucifixion, exactly as he prophesied that he would do:-

King of kings' Bible - Matthew 12:39 But he answered and said unto them, An evil and unfaithfull generation seeketh after a sign; and there shall no sign be given to it, but the sign of the prophet Jonah:
12:40 For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.

Ishtar/Easter Friday to Ishtar/Easter Sunday is only two days, not the three days that Jesus prophesied it would be, which is further, absolutely obvious proof, that the teaching of the blind guides; of all of the so-called christian churches, none of whom can see the obvious; is a lie, proving, beyond doubt, that they are indeed blind guides.

The crucifixion was on Wednesday 21 st of April in 34 AD., forty years after the birth of Jesus in 7 BC.

To say that the ministry of Jesus was only for three and a half years, as the blind guides who falsely claim to work for God do, is to contradict God and Daniel, who said it was SEVEN years. Those who contradict God, are, by doing so, opposing God, which proves that they really work for Satan - the Opposer - and that they do NOT work for God. Do not allow yourself to be deceived by them, or you will end up in The Pit with them, exactly as Jesus told you.

King of kings' Bible - Matthew 15:13 But he answered and said, Every plant, which my heavenly Father hath NOT planted, shall be rooted up.
15:14 Let them alone: they be blind leaders of the blind. And if the blind lead the blind, both shall fall into the ditch (or Pit).

Amen - so be it.

JAH.

JAH - Home Page
 
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prodromos

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Why is there an Easter & what does it mean?

Why did Christ have to be crucified?

THE PASSOVER - 1500 B.C.- foreshadowing the Second Passover.

The Israelites were in Egypt, in slavery, under the rule and laws of evil men. The word British is Hebrew and means the "People of the Covenant"; that means, the "People Israel of the Covenant".

The Passover was where the "angel of death" passed over the houses of the Israelites and killed the first-born of Egypt, from EVERY household including the pharaoh's (the king). It foreshadows the Second Passover because a lamb was sacrificed and its blood used to paint around the door of every Israelite house, to save them from death, just as the death of THE "Lamb of God" - Jesus and His blood, saved the entire nation from death at Passover, 1500 years later.

The Passover and the lamb's blood was the thing, that brought about, the end of 400 years of slavery and oppression, under the rules and laws of man, to FREEDOM under the Rule of God; His Laws and Economics, given to Moses and the British (Israel) people at Sinai.

THE SECOND PASSOVER - Wednesday 21 st April, 34 A.D. - NOT Easter of 33 AD.

It was the Second Passover because the "Lamb" died, instead of the entire nation, who were under "The Curse of The Law". What curse and why? The Law was not a curse but a blessing, to all those who kept it (God's Law, not man's) and was a "school-teacher to bring men to Christ" - the Head-"Master".

So what was this Curse of The Law, that had condemned the entire nation to death?

As the British (Israel) left Egypt and slavery, hoping to never become slaves again - "Rule Britannia" (think about the words - you all know them) - they swore that they would never kneel to any man, EVER again, only to God Who had given them freedom from the rule of evil men. BUT, a human's word and memory is cheap and short.

At Sinai, in Horeb, Moses was given God's Laws; Statutes; Judgements; Agricultural and Economic Policies, so that the British (Israel) could live in prosperity and freedom, from oppression under selfish men's laws and economic policies.

The entire British nation accepted the contract (Covenant) that had been made, at first, with Abraham their father because he did not withhold his only son, the "miracle" child Isaac, on top of Mt. Moriah.

Under The Covenant (contract), the British swore a solemnly binding oath, that you would KEEP and DO everything that God had commanded to Moses, FOR EVER and would be God's servant nation, His wife and faithful to the marriage-contract (The Covenant) and His Demonstration People to the rest of the world.

That demonstration, was, to show the rest of the world, how wonderful it was to live under God's Laws and Economics, as opposed to men's evil systems (all of them including "so-called" democracy).

Under the terms of the marriage-contract God gave the British (Israel) the "Land Flowing with Milk and Honey" - the milk of human kindness and sweetness - the land of Israel.

He said that as long as they kept His ways and did not commit adultery (unfaithfulness to Him or each other), He would bring the sun and rain in their seasons and He would make their crops grow abundantly and they would want for nothing. They would live in peace and safety and be happy and prosperous, with no need for crime, as there would be no poverty and everyone would love and help each other. ("Love your neighbour as much as you love yourself").

The idea behind this, was, so that the gentile nations, outside of Israel, would see how wonderful it was to live under God's system and want it for themselves.

They would have two options and would choose the wrong one first, as humans always do, and that would be to try to take Israel by force and steal what they had. BUT, under The Covenant (marriage-contract), God had promised the British that He (as a husband protects his wife) would fight their enemies FOR them, and defeat them and that one British man would chase a thousand and they would flee in terror.

So, then, the gentiles would have to take option two - "if you can't beat them, join them" and they would come to the British (Israel) and ask if they could join them. Whereupon, they would be told, yes, IF they agreed to keep The Covenant too. This was to be "the grafting into Israel of the Gentiles", so that, little by little, the borders of Israel would enlarge to take in these gentile nations and eventually the whole world would become the Kingdom of Israel and God's Kingdom on Earth, with justice; freedom; safety and prosperity for everyone, not just the strong, powerful and rich, like under men's evil laws.

However, they broke their promise and The Covenant and allowed greedy; selfish; evil people, from amongst their own nation, to make up their own laws; economics and customs, to make the COMMANDMENTS of God of no effect. Because of this going away from God's Laws and Economic Policy, given in the Books of Moses (the 1st five Books of the Bible), and turning to man's laws in the "Talmud", the people became slaves again. This time they were not the slaves of foreigners but of the rich people whom they had allowed to make up laws to cheat them and make them poor and themselves rich - people from within their own nation.

So they had broken the contract and were not giving God's Demonstration, as they had promised, and would not be able to help God to bring the Gentiles into the Kingdom, as there was nothing worth joining. The system had become no better than a gentile one.

The curse then came into force. Under The Covenant were blessings for keeping the contract and penalty clauses or "Curses" for breaking the contract. As they had broken the contract they came under The Curse (penalty clause) and that curse was death, for the whole nation. They had already sold themselves back into slavery, and poverty and death was to follow.

So, once again the nation needed to be freed from slavery and death, just like in the Passover in Egypt, 1500 years before.

As The Covenant came into being because Abraham did not withhold his "miracle" son Isaac, the ONLY way to save the entire nation from death, was for God to annul (cancel) the contract and the ONLY way He could do that, was by sacrificing His own "miracle" Son from the "Virgin-birth", unless the nation accepted His Son's Sovereignty and returned to His Laws and their duty under the Old Covenant, accepted at Sinai, in Horeb.

This they refused to do, so the contract had to be cancelled and the only way to do that was for God's Son to be sacrificed, instead of the whole nation.

The New Contract (Testament) then came into existence for those who wanted "Life" and freedom. It was necessary to sacrifice THE "Lamb" to free the people from slavery, poverty and death under the curse and under men's evil laws in the Jewish Talmud, and return them to freedom, under God's Laws, in the Bible, once again; under the New Covenant (Testament).

There should not be an Easter; it should be the Second Passover because it happened at exactly the same time of year. Jesus and the Disciples' "Last Supper" was the "Feast of the Passover", and the setting up of the New Covenant (Testament)(marriage-contract), under which, IF everyone returned to God's Laws and Ways and to serving ONLY Him, they could have "Life", and freedom.

So where did Easter come from? Easter comes from the word Ishtar, who was a Babylonian pagan fertility goddess of the Babylonian Mystery Religion of Sun-worship on Sundays; which is why it is celebrated with eggs, because eggs are a sign of fertility. Easter is a totally pagan festival that has absolutely nothing to do with Jesus; the Crucifixion, which was the Second-Passover; or serving God.

In order to serve only God, which is the first and most important of the COMMANDments, and to do His Will (Islam in Arabic), they would have to learn to communicate with Him, so He could teach them how to, "be ye perfect, even as your Father in heaven IS perfect".

If people did this, they would reap the benefit from Divine Wisdom; Love; Law and Justice, instead of the evil, that comes from the rule of men who are guided by Satan and his selfish; hateful; greedy; unjust and destructive ways.

The priests; lawyers and politicians had made up their own laws, in the "Talmud" and misled the people (the blind leading the blind) away from freedom, into their evil system, which made and kept them all rich and powerful and allowed them to prey on the people and steal the people's share of the wealth, under their home-made, illegal and fraudulent laws (James 5:4) and economics (Isaiah 3:12-15 and Ezekiel 34:2, 8).

Therefore the priesthood and false system had to be abolished and IT WAS abolished forever, at The Crucifixion, to make way for the return of God's Rule and Ways, and the New Covenant, under which there was only ONE priest - THE High Priest - Christ (Ezekiel 34:10, 23).

At the Crucifixion the Temple Veil was torn in two, from top to bottom, and totally destroyed -WHY? What was the significance of The Veil, that made it so important, that God needed to destroy it, at The Crucifixion?

For the answer we have to go back in time 2000 years, to around 2000 B.C., to the time of Abraham and Isaac. God chose Abraham because he believed and served only God and NO-ONE else and it was accounted to him for righteousness. Abraham was willing to give up the most precious thing to him, on Earth - his "miracle" son, on Mt.Moriah. Remember Mt. Moriah.

Later, the shepherd boy, king David, asked God if he could build a house for God to live in. He was answered, "Am I a man that I need a house to live in?" I am God and I need no house. I live in the heart of every man that invites Me in to live with him, so I can teach him how to be good (like God).

However, because king David had been God's "well-beloved" servant, God decided to allow David's son Solomon to build Him a house (Temple) on MT. MORIAH, where Abraham had taken Isaac to offer him as a sacrifice to God, centuries before.

That Temple or church is the ONLY one that God has EVER given man permission to build and it is Satan and his priests (who blasphemously claim to work for God) who have built ALL the others of EVERY denomination. He does not want a house to live in, He wants to live in your hearts, as a welcome guest to teach you how to be like Him - good.

The Temple, on Mt. Moriah, had an outer court-yard and an inner sanctuary, which was called "The Holy of Holies" - the most sacred spot on Earth, the exact place where Abraham offered up Isaac and it was known as THE Holy Place. This "Holy of Holies" was separated from the outer-court of the Temple by the "Temple Veil" (curtain).

NO-ONE was allowed to enter the "Holy of Holies" EXCEPT the "High Priest", who went in there to communicate with God.

When THE "High-Priest of all time" was crucified by the jewish priests; lawyers and politicians, for challenging their authority, and the "Temple Veil" to the "Holy of Holies" was destroyed, this was to show the world that, from that moment on, the priest-hood was abolished FOR EVER, except for Christ Himself. Since then, through His teachings, of the New Testament (Covenant), EVERYONE has had DIRECT ACCESS TO GOD, if they follow the teachings EXACTLY as written and not as misinterpreted and corrupted by Satan's priests, who have the audacity to say they serve Christ, when they do the opposite of what Christ says. Thereby misleading the people away from God again and into believing that God lives in a house and outside of their hearts, which is the opposite of what God wants. They teach people to sing silly songs, that help no-one, instead of teaching Christ's Teachings, about how to learn from God, how to make the world a better, fairer and safer place, free from poverty and crime, as they should be doing.

Anyone who has not signed up for the New Covenant, in its entirety, is as good as "dead", because you are still under The Curse (penalty clause) of the Old Covenant - slavery and death.

There is still time but only just. Read Isaiah 42:7 and my "Hand-book for Prisoners, Prison Officers and Governors" - print out or send for a copy to send to your local prison, and/or people you know, or know of, who have been imprisoned.

You are ALL in slavery to the rich and in poverty and always have been because you have not kept The Covenant and have allowed evil, selfish people, to make up illegal laws and economic systems, to cheat you and make you poor and drive some of you to crime to survive and feed your families, exactly as God warned you more than 3000 years ago, by His prophet, TO YOU, Isaiah. Read Isaiah 3:12-15 and Isaiah 42:20-22 for yourself. See what it REALLY says.

You can set yourselves and the entire working-class FREE, from poverty and injustice, by keeping The Covenant, "Fighting for the Kingdom and Justice for ALL" and for a return to Freedom under God's Laws of Liberty and Economics, instead of imprisonment or slavery under Her Majesty's; Congress'; or anyone else's illegal laws and economics.

The New Covenant is waiting for YOU to accept it and do your half, so that God and I can do Ours, and it has been waiting for 2000 years for you to come to your senses and open your eyes and ears and listen to Us, and ONLY Us.

* * The Essenes and the Disciples called themselves "The Covenanters" and the early disciples called themselves "Followers of The Way", NOT christians.

Copyright © 1991 - JAH - all rights reserved.

If you want to know The TRUTH read "The Way home or face The Fire" and my other Booklets.


There is no Good Friday: it was on a Wednesday.

Most people have been wrongly taught and therefore believe that Jesus only taught for 3 and 1/2 years and was crucified at Ishtar of 33 AD, so please do not take what I am going to say as something personal against any of you. It is not meant to be taken personally by anyone and is only meant to straighten out the common misunderstanding and set the record straight, as this site is dedicated to truth.

This teaching of 3 and 1/2 years, of course, is untrue, like most things you have been taught by your blind guides, and a close look at all of what Daniel the Old Testament Prophet wrote will prove it to be untrue.

Daniel 9:26 And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and The Sanctuary; and the end thereof [shall be] with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined.
9:27 And he shall confirm The Covenant with many for ONE WEEK: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations He shall make [it] desolate, even until the consummation (the "Lake of Hell-Fire"), and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.

So here we have the proof that God said the Messiah would confirm The Covenant (New Covenant prophesied in Ezekiel 34) for ONE WEEK, meaning SEVEN years. Seven years, NOT three and a half years. The reference to being cut off in the midst (middle) of the week therefore cannot possibly refer to the number of years, but only to the day of the week - Wednesday, not Friday as the pagan so-called christian churches teach, just like they teach the false date of Jesus' birth as being Dec. 25th.

They have done the same with the Crucifixion. It was on a Wednesday the middle of the week, not on Friday the sixth day of the week.

Jesus arose from the dead on the Sabbath Day - Saturday - three days and three nights after the Wednesday mid-week Crucifixion, exactly as he prophesied that he would do:-

King of kings' Bible - Matthew 12:39 But he answered and said unto them, An evil and unfaithfull generation seeketh after a sign; and there shall no sign be given to it, but the sign of the prophet Jonah:
12:40 For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.

Ishtar/Easter Friday to Ishtar/Easter Sunday is only two days, not the three days that Jesus prophesied it would be, which is further, absolutely obvious proof, that the teaching of the blind guides; of all of the so-called christian churches, none of whom can see the obvious; is a lie, proving, beyond doubt, that they are indeed blind guides.

The crucifixion was on Wednesday 21 st of April in 34 AD., forty years after the birth of Jesus in 7 BC.

To say that the ministry of Jesus was only for three and a half years, as the blind guides who falsely claim to work for God do, is to contradict God and Daniel, who said it was SEVEN years. Those who contradict God, are, by doing so, opposing God, which proves that they really work for Satan - the Opposer - and that they do NOT work for God. Do not allow yourself to be deceived by them, or you will end up in The Pit with them, exactly as Jesus told you.

King of kings' Bible - Matthew 15:13 But he answered and said, Every plant, which my heavenly Father hath NOT planted, shall be rooted up.
15:14 Let them alone: they be blind leaders of the blind. And if the blind lead the blind, both shall fall into the ditch (or Pit).

Amen - so be it.

JAH.

JAH - Home Page
Ah, so all this claptrap is your own work. I guess that answers my earlier question you wouldn't answer.
 
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