But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day [is] with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.
I have a question for greek scholars. In this verse, the word 'thousand' is in the plural form chilioi (strong 5507)as if to say 'thousands' but yet every translation that I've seen thus far translates it as "a thousand". There is a singular form of the word that is used chilias (strongs 5505) which means a thousand or 'one' thousand, but that word is not used here.
Thus, it seems apparent to me that the more correct interpretation should be: But beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day with the Lord is as thousands of years and thousands of years as one day.
Many out there apply 2 Peter 3:8 to the days of creation, thinking that we are close to the transition time between the 6000 years and the beginning of the 7th millenia or period of rest. And although Gods judgement of the earth through fire may come about in that timetable, it does not appear as though this verse can be used to support that line of thinking.
This same singular/plural confusion occurs in Revelation 20, but well focus on 2 Peter.
I've found both sides of the argument online.
http://www.nhbchristiantalk.org/qandaonendtimes.htm
http://jesus-messiah.com/smith/1000.html
But the main argument I would see would be the question of why the singular form Chilias wasn't used in 2 Peter. It would have defined and cleared things up very well.
Any greek grammar specialists out there. Not looking for a Amillenial/millenial debate, but a focus on the grammar part and transition between greek grammar and english grammar.
Not rash.
I have a question for greek scholars. In this verse, the word 'thousand' is in the plural form chilioi (strong 5507)as if to say 'thousands' but yet every translation that I've seen thus far translates it as "a thousand". There is a singular form of the word that is used chilias (strongs 5505) which means a thousand or 'one' thousand, but that word is not used here.
Thus, it seems apparent to me that the more correct interpretation should be: But beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day with the Lord is as thousands of years and thousands of years as one day.
Many out there apply 2 Peter 3:8 to the days of creation, thinking that we are close to the transition time between the 6000 years and the beginning of the 7th millenia or period of rest. And although Gods judgement of the earth through fire may come about in that timetable, it does not appear as though this verse can be used to support that line of thinking.
This same singular/plural confusion occurs in Revelation 20, but well focus on 2 Peter.
I've found both sides of the argument online.
http://www.nhbchristiantalk.org/qandaonendtimes.htm
http://jesus-messiah.com/smith/1000.html
But the main argument I would see would be the question of why the singular form Chilias wasn't used in 2 Peter. It would have defined and cleared things up very well.
Any greek grammar specialists out there. Not looking for a Amillenial/millenial debate, but a focus on the grammar part and transition between greek grammar and english grammar.
Not rash.
