1 Corinthians - Baptizing the Dead?

[John3verse20]

So I thought that proxy baptism for the dead was a practice originated by the Mormons (Lateer Day Saints.)

But I was reading 1 Corinthians 15:29 and it asked, if the dead are not raised at all, why are people baptized on their behalf?

So apparently this practice existed in early Christianity. Whether it was officially sanctioned by Paul is another matter, but he's not objecting to it in his letter to the Corinthians, just saying that this practice only makes sense if there is a resurrection.

Any comments?

 

[InSpiritInTruth]

Paul was not talking about baptizing dead people, but rather being baptized into Christs death.

Romans 6:3
Know ye not that as many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into His death?

 

[drjean]

John Gill's Exposition 1 Corinthians 15:29

Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead,
&c.] The apostle here returns to his subject, and makes use of new arguments to prove the doctrine of the resurrection of the dead, and reasons for it from the baptism of some persons; but what is his sense, is not easy to be understood, or what rite and custom, or thing, or action he refers to; which must, be either Jewish baptism, or Christian baptism literally taken, or baptism in a figurative and metaphorical sense. Some think that he refers to some one or other of the divers baptisms of the Jews; see ( Hebrews 9:10 ) and particularly to the purification of such who had touched a dead body, which was done both by the ashes of the red heifer burnt, and by bathing himself in water; and which, the Jews say F12, intimated (Mytmh) (tyyxtl) , "the resurrection of the dead": wherefore such a right was needless, if there is no resurrection; to strengthen this sense, a passage in Ecclesiasticus 34:25 is produced, (baptizomenov apo nekrou) , "he that washeth himself after the touching of a dead body, if he touch it again, what availeth his washing?" but the phrase there used is different; it is not said, he that baptizeth or washeth himself for the dead, but from the dead, to cleanse himself from pollution received by the touch of a dead body: it is also observed, that the Jews, as well as other nations, have used various rites and ceremonies about their dead, and among the rest, the washing of dead bodies before interment; see ( Acts 9:37

 

[ViaCrucis]

So I thought that proxy baptism for the dead was a practice originated by the Mormons (Lateer Day Saints.)

But I was reading 1 Corinthians 15:29 and it asked, if the dead are not raised at all, why are people baptized on their behalf?

So apparently this practice existed in early Christianity. Whether it was officially sanctioned by Paul is another matter, but he's not objecting to it in his letter to the Corinthians, just saying that this practice only makes sense if there is a resurrection.

Any comments?

The quick and short of it? There's really nothing in the text, nor material outside of the text from historic Christian tradition upon which to make an informed opinion. As such we really just don't know what it is that Paul was talking about. Everyone and their brother, of course, is entitled to speculate and be imaginative, but this is probably a fruitless endeavor. The Apostle doesn't bother explaining what he means, whether in this passage or elsewhere, and as far as I'm aware there exists no commentary on the subject from the ancient Fathers (if there is solid, good patristic commentary on this matter that could shed some insight into an otherwise vague and cryptic statement, I would be most interested in reading it).

Trying to exegete such a cryptic statement without any available context is pure eisegesis.

-CryptoLutheran