It seems that many modern scholars do not believe that the Apostle John wrote 1-3 John (much less GJohn or Rev). An interesting reason for believing this is the fact that Diotrephes (in 3 John) rejects the authority of the author of the letter. It is thought impossible that Diotrephes would ever reject the authority of an actual Apostle or that an Apostle would ever be rejected by the churches (but see the Apostle Paul). Thoughts?