Was the New Testament Really Written in Greek?

The manifest issue you can put to bed, because the word means manifest and those two chose to use translate differently. The Aramaic there has the same meaning as the Greek.

As for 14-14-14, how stubborn can you be? Then let us count also the names from David as it says. We then get in the Greek 14-15-14, compared to 14-14-14 in the Peshitta. That sir, is a Greek contradiction.

Regards,

Chris

I get for you the Aramaic in the manifest verse

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You could be picky in saying that the verse doesn't exactly say "Alaha" but the very word "godliness" shows you the meanings. If you want to be THAT picky, go and count how many times the Peshitta calls Jesus "Lord YHWH" and how many times the Greek dilutes this message, simply calling Him "lord". The irony is that before you were accusing the Peshitta of diluting the divinity message (implying it at least), while the Greek never ever calls Him "Lord YHYH" as does the Peshitta, nor does it ever call Him "Alaha", as does the Peshitta. The Peshitta is THE "divinty Bible". I used to be one of those like the Jehovah's, who didn't believe in Jesus' divinity. But then, as I immersed myself in the Aramaic, I could no longer run away from the truth

Regards,

Chris

Even more, and extra corruption from the Alexandrian:

Romans 9:5 (Peshitta, translated): “And from among them is seen/revealed the Messiah in the flesh, who is Alaha”



The Aramaic version of the book of Jude is not as direct as Romans, but still shows that Jesus is Alaha. Here is the latter part of the verse:



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While talking about Alaha, it says that they: “deny he who is alone Lord Alaha and Lord Yeshua Messiah.”



This clearly talks of one being who is “Lord Alaha” and “Lord Yeshua Messiah”. This verse makes it clear that Jesus is Alaha.



The translations by Etheridge and Murdock agree:



Etheridge: “For certain men have obtained entrance, who from the beginning were proscribed in this condemnation; depraved men, who the grace of Aloha turn unto lasciviousness, and him who is the only Lord GOD, our Lord Jeshu Meshiha, deny.”



Murdock: “For some have obtained entrance, who from the beginning were registered beforehand under this condemnation: wicked men, who pervert the grace of God to impurity, and deny him who is the only Lord God and our Lord, Jesus the Messiah.”



Does the Greek make it so clear? No, the Greek allows for ambiguity (with the Alexandrian text omitting “God” altogether).



KJV: “For there are certain men crept in unawares, who were before of old ordained to this condemnation, ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness and denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ.”



NIV: “For certain men whose condemnation was written about long ago have secretly slipped in among you. They are godless men, who change the grace of our God into a license for immorality and deny Jesus Christ our only Sovereign and Lord.”



Byzantine Greek: … kai ton monon despothn qeon kai kurion hmwn ihsoun criston arnoumenoi



It approximately reads “... and denying the only master God and our Lord Jesus Christ”



Alexandrian Greek: … kai ton monon despothn kai kurion hmwn ihsoun criston arnoumenoi



It approximately reads: “... and denying the only master and our Lord Jesus Christ”



The Byzantine isn't as clear as the Aramaic in showing that Jesus is God. It is inescapable from the Aramaic. But the Alexandrian is even more guilty in omitting “God” altogether, leaving no possibility for an interpretation that Jesus is God.

And of course Peshitta also has perhaps the most important divinity verse of them all:

1co 8:5-6
5 For though there are those that are called gods, whether in heaven or
earth, just as there are many gods and many lords,
6 To us there is one, God the Father, from whom comes every thing and by
whom we live; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by
him.

To us there is only one God, "Alaha Abba", "God the Father". i.e. either Jesus is He, or he is not a god or a false god if you will.

Regards,

Chris

As for the divinity issue. I must have misunderstood, I thought you were fighting the "Peshitta manifest" claim. As for the 1Co issue, look at the older greek texts at what they say... Also, we see that the Greek NT, whether Alexandrian, Byzantine, Western or Caesarian, they never EVER call Jesus "Lord YHWH". The Peshitta calls Him this dozens of times, as well as "Alaha".

As for 14,14,14, you are adding to the Word I believe. It is ridiculous to say that David you count twice because he is father and son, so was Jeconiah! In fact, so were all the people in the middle. Nowhere does it say you can or should do this. It says clearly 14,14,14 generations. And to top it all off, the Peshitta, a far older version makes it 14-14-14 without mucking about counting people twice (inconsistently I might add), and it does this by showing that THIS Joseph is actually the "gowra" of Mary. THIS is MARY's genealogy. This also solves the problem of why in the Greek, BOTH genealogies are of Joseph... Not so, the Peshitta reveals that Matthew gives Mary's and Luke gives Joseph's. Yes I am aware that Greek primacists say it is the other way around, but that is silliness, assuming such stupid things as "Joseph was the sort-of-son of Mary's father" etc. Very very simple, no wonder the Peshitta in Aramaic means "straight" or "simple"

Let us look at another solved contradiction:

13. Why does Jesus wake up Peter, James and John, after telling them to “sleep on”? – Mark 14:41 / Mark 14:42



Mark 14:41



The KJV says: “And he cometh the third time, and saith unto them, Sleep on now, and take your rest: it is enough, the hour is come; behold, the Son of man is betrayed into the hands of sinners.”



The NIV says: “Returning the third time, he said to them, "Are you still sleeping and resting? Enough! The hour has come. Look, the Son of Man is betrayed into the hands of sinners.”



Notice how the NIV betrays “the original Greek” behind it when it should clearly say something along the lines of “sleep on now and take your rest”, as it has the words kaqeudete (“sleep on”), anapauesqe (“take your rest”) and loipon (“now”).



Now, why does Jesus wake them up again (in verse 40 they were sleeping), only to tell them to sleep, and then wake them up again in the following verse?



Mark 14:42



KJV: “Rise up, let us go; lo, he that betrayeth me is at hand.”



NIV: “Rise! Let us go! Here comes my betrayer!"”



The Aramaic COULD mean what the Greek says, but can ALSO mean “So they are already having sleep and rest!…”, which would make more sense of the context (they kept sleeping and Jesus kept waking them up). The Aramaic grammar here can very much show that Jesus was speaking to both Himself and the Apostles in verse 41 (it was fairly common for Him to speak in the 3rd person – e.g. “the Son of man”).



Zorba just made a complete mess of these verses, by misunderstanding the grammar of a couple of ambiguous verbs (which can be taken to be imperative or perfect verbs).