Was the New Testament Really Written in Greek?

John 16:32



KJV: “Behold, the hour cometh, yea, is now come, that ye shall be scattered, every man to his own, and shall leave me alone: and yet I am not alone, because the Father is with me.”

So is God a liar and forsakes the only ever non-sinner?

It is easy to understand how this mistranslation occurred, as “sabachthani” can mean “forsaken” and “spared”, among other things. People may argue that it doesn’t make sense that Jesus would ask why He has been spared (though it does make sense when you realise that He was suffering for about 6 hours, and died soon after that plea. i.e. “Why have you spared me? Let’s get it over with!”), but it surely makes a lot more sense that Jesus contradicting His own Word!


This example is also a semi-split word, as it deals with a mistranslation.

13. Why does Jesus wake up Peter, James and John, after telling them to “sleep on”? – Mark 14:41 / Mark 14:42



Mark 14:41



The KJV says: “And he cometh the third time, and saith unto them, Sleep on now, and take your rest: it is enough, the hour is come; behold, the Son of man is betrayed into the hands of sinners.”



The NIV says: “Returning the third time, he said to them, "Are you still sleeping and resting? Enough! The hour has come. Look, the Son of Man is betrayed into the hands of sinners.”



Notice how the NIV betrays “the original Greek” behind it when it should clearly say something along the lines of “sleep on now and take your rest”, as it has the words kaqeudete (“sleep on”), anapauesqe (“take your rest”) and loipon (“now”).



Now, why does Jesus wake them up again (in verse 40 they were sleeping), only to tell them to sleep, and then wake them up again in the following verse?



Mark 14:42



KJV: “Rise up, let us go; lo, he that betrayeth me is at hand.”



NIV: “Rise! Let us go! Here comes my betrayer!"”



The Aramaic COULD mean what the Greek says, but can ALSO mean “So they are already having sleep and rest!…”, which would make more sense of the context (they kept sleeping and Jesus kept waking them up). The Aramaic grammar here can very much show that Jesus was speaking to both Himself and the Apostles in verse 41 (it was fairly common for Him to speak in the 3rd person – e.g. “the Son of man”).



Zorba just made a complete mess of these verses, by misunderstanding the grammar of a couple of ambiguous verbs (which can be taken to be imperative or perfect verbs).

The Greek makes God sound odd here:

1Corinthians 1:21



The KJV says: “For after that in the wisdom of God the world by wisdom knew not God, it pleased God by the foolishness of preaching to save them that believe.”



The NIV says: “For since in the wisdom of God the world through its wisdom did not know him, God was pleased through the foolishness of what was preached to save those who believe.”

Your answer is insufficient and you know it, questioning the very character of God!

The Peshitt answer is simple:

The Aramaic word in question, [font='Estrangelo (V1.1)']Fwy=4bd[/font], means “simple”. “Simple” CAN be taken to mean “foolish” (e.g. a simple person / a foolish person), but it boggles the mind why Zorba would translate it so, when the verse refers to the Gospel.

And this one I love. It exposes not only Greek corruption, but Massoretic also and PROVES that NT quotes are not from LXX, but from Original Hebrew (pre-Massoretic). It questions the very character if God. According to GNT/HOT He comes off as evil. The Peshitta makes Him look great!

17. God blinded their eyes? – John 12:40 et al



This topic is massive, spanning many verses, and dealing with contradictions in the Greek (including the contradiction between the GNT and the LXX), the corrupt nature of the Massoretic OT (as dealt with before), the corrupt nature of the GNT, the lie that the GNT quotes the LXX, the character of God, and the clarity of the Peshitta.



First let us establish some ground rules:



1Timothy 2:3-4

For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour, Who desires all men to be saved and to return to the knowledge of the truth.



2Peter 3:9

The Lord is not negligent concerning his promises, as some men count negligence; but is longsuffering toward you, not wishing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.



God wants all to be saved. Yet the Greek New Testament shocks us and provides ammunition to anti-Christians:



John 12:40 [KJV]: He hath blinded their eyes, and hardened their heart; that they should not see with their eyes, nor understand with their heart, and be converted, and I should heal them.



John 12:40 [NIV]: "He has blinded their eyes and deadened their hearts, so they can neither see with their eyes, nor understand with their hearts, nor turn--and I would heal them."



Did God change His mind or has the Greek just once again exposed itself as an imposter?



This error was caused by misunderstanding of a passive plural verb in the Aramaic. The Peshitta says:



John 12:40 [Lamsa]: Their eyes have become blind and their hearts darkened, so that they cannot see with their eyes and understand with their hearts; let them return and I will heal them.



John 12:40 [Younan]: that they have blinded their eyes and have darkened their heart that not they might see with their eyes and understand with their heart and repent and I heal them



It gets better. So often we hear claims that the GNT quotes the LXX. John 12:40 refers to Isaiah 6:10. The Massoretic translations also give us this “nasty” image of God:



Isaiah 6:10 [KJV]: Make the heart of this people fat, and make their ears heavy, and shut their eyes; lest they see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their heart, and convert, and be healed.



Isaiah 6:10 [NIV]: Make the heart of this people calloused; make their ears dull and close their eyes. Otherwise they might see with their eyes, hear with their ears, understand with their hearts, and turn and be healed."



LXX: This people's heart has become calloused; they hardly hear with their ears, and they have closed their eyes



Clearly, the GNT quotes from the Massoretic, rather than the LXX in this case. Let’s look at the Peshitta OT:



Isaiah 6:10 [Lamsa]: For the heart of this people is darkened and their ears are heavy and their eyes closed, so that they may not see with their eyes and hear with their ears and understand with their heart and be converted and be forgiven.



Again we see the value of the LXX and Peshitta OT, as the Massoretic Hebrew OT is not always correct. We must always keep in mind, that they are all different branches of the true Hebrew original. Furthermore, the GNT follows the corrupted Massoretic text, while the Peshitta New Testament gets the true, uncorrupted, non-contradictory reading from the original Hebrew Old Testament, as does the LXX and the POT.



As stated before, this case is absolutely MASSIVE. The false translations from the OT and NT make it seem that God actually wants people to be unsaved – contradicting the rest of the Bible. From the Aramaic though, we see that it was not God who did these things, but perhaps the people themselves. And that is so true. Often, when one sees the truth, one chooses “not to believe it”, to ignore it. For example, this is what happens with those who believe in evolution as the origin of life from a single cell – they choose to believe this unproven and illogical theory because it liberates them from accountability before a higher power, despite the mounds of evidence that the reverse, degeneration, occurs (I refer you to the free e-book “Evolution is in Fact Degeneration” by Peter M. Scheele).

Wrong, it says hate and you know it. The peshitta makes it far simpler, so why choose the inferior reading which is contradictory?

""Semitic is not Jewish. All non-Jews are considered Greek in the New Testament.
""

Such ignorance! Are Arameans, Chaldeans and northerners also Greek?!?! What stupidity is this???

christian-only said:

Besides, Semitic is not Jewish. All non-Jews are considered Greek in the New Testament.

Click to expand...

Non-Jewish Semites would go mad!

What do you think the KJV says in that verse? That the Gospel is great???

Here are KJV as well as NIV:

1Corinthians 1:21



The KJV says: “For after that in the wisdom of God the world by wisdom knew not God, it pleased God by the foolishness of preaching to save them that believe.”



The NIV says: “For since in the wisdom of God the world through its wisdom did not know him, God was pleased through the foolishness of what was preached to save those who believe.”

My friend, why would the Bible be so full of Aramaic idioms if the target audience was Greek-speaking, rather than Aramaic-speaking?

""The NIV is a PARAPHRASE, which is why it CREATES a contradiction.""

read the Greek, and it is clear. There is a contradiction, to which is solved and EXPLAINED by the Peshitta. The Peshitta was ambiguous and could have meant both.

Like Hebrew, Aramaic is at times a very ambiguous language. This is why there are so many variants among Greek textual families that are easily explained by an Aramaic original.

Friend, as for 75 souls, you cannot be sure the Peshitta has a contradiction, for we are dealing with OT. Which OT is the original? Exactly... None that we know. All the HOT, LXX and POT are unperfect versions that are based on the true original Hebrew OT.

Excuse me, but I notice a trend. You seem to be going through the book and choosing only the ones that can have easier explanations. Why are you skipping the "harder" ones? Such as the 14-14-13? Don't skip any friend.

And I have noticed that you STILL have not answered why the "Greek Luke" speaks in Semiticisms.