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Concomitance in the Eucharist?

Hamlowe

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Peace and blessings to you from a Roman Catholic friend. First, I think I should define what I'm talking about here.

The doctrine of concomitance is the idea that in the consecrated Eucharist, in either species (either the Bread or the Wine), the whole Body, Blood, Soul, and Divinity of Jesus Christ is present. That is to say, we do not teach that someone who receives only the Host, as many Romans do, is only receiving the Body without the Blood, or that someone who receives only from the chalice (as some people with celiac and related diseases do at my parish, even needing a separate chalice from the one the priest uses) receives only the Blood without the Body. This was developed in response to the Utraquist heresy, which claimed that to separate the species was to separate Christ.

I've struggled with this doctrine somewhat, since Jesus did say to take and eat and take and drink, never saying we should only do one or the other. Moreover, I think from a practical, non-dogmatic point of view, that receiving both species is a better symbol of what's really going on in the Eucharist even if we only receive one species. I hope that makes sense. I've made my peace with this definition, and while I don't receive under both species at my parish, I do receive under both species when it's offered at other parishes, and would personally advocate for intinction (which is most similar to the Antiochian/Melkite practice) were I someone worth listening to on the matter. I do want to be clear that while I do not defy Rome's teaching on concomitance, I do prefer both species when it is practical.

What I'm curious about is what Orthodox think about this, not having faced the heresy that prompted this development. Do you believe someone must receive both the "bread" and "wine" in order to receive the full Eucharist? I feel like I've read and maybe even seen at a Melkite parish that infant communion is typically done with the "wine" only, but I don't want to say that confidently. If that is a common practice, that does feel like answer enough, but I'm curious what your experience is.
 

ArmyMatt

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Do you believe someone must receive both the "bread" and "wine" in order to receive the full Eucharist?
no, because Christ isn’t separated into parts. babies or the elderly who cannot chew can get wine only. however, Christ Himself said to take the Body and the Blood, so that has to be the standard for the faithful.
 
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Hamlowe

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no, because Christ isn’t separated into parts. babies or the elderly who cannot chew can get wine only. however, Christ Himself said to take the Body and the Blood, so that has to be the standard for the faithful.
Makes sense. Thanks.
 
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prodromos

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Peace and blessings to you from a Roman Catholic friend. First, I think I should define what I'm talking about here.

The doctrine of concomitance is the idea that in the consecrated Eucharist, in either species (either the Bread or the Wine), the whole Body, Blood, Soul, and Divinity of Jesus Christ is present. That is to say, we do not teach that someone who receives only the Host, as many Romans do, is only receiving the Body without the Blood, or that someone who receives only from the chalice (as some people with celiac and related diseases do at my parish, even needing a separate chalice from the one the priest uses) receives only the Blood without the Body. This was developed in response to the Utraquist heresy, which claimed that to separate the species was to separate Christ.

I've struggled with this doctrine somewhat, since Jesus did say to take and eat and take and drink, never saying we should only do one or the other. Moreover, I think from a practical, non-dogmatic point of view, that receiving both species is a better symbol of what's really going on in the Eucharist even if we only receive one species. I hope that makes sense. I've made my peace with this definition, and while I don't receive under both species at my parish, I do receive under both species when it's offered at other parishes, and would personally advocate for intinction (which is most similar to the Antiochian/Melkite practice) were I someone worth listening to on the matter. I do want to be clear that while I do not defy Rome's teaching on concomitance, I do prefer both species when it is practical.

What I'm curious about is what Orthodox think about this, not having faced the heresy that prompted this development. Do you believe someone must receive both the "bread" and "wine" in order to receive the full Eucharist? I feel like I've read and maybe even seen at a Melkite parish that infant communion is typically done with the "wine" only, but I don't want to say that confidently. If that is a common practice, that does feel like answer enough, but I'm curious what your experience is.
What I find strange is that this practice of receiving only the one is that it is laity only. Your priests still receive both.
 
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prodromos

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babies or the elderly who cannot chew can get wine only
That wine, however, is taken from the mingled cup, where both body and blood are present.
 
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Hamlowe

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What I find strange is that this practice of receiving only the one is that it is laity only. Your priests still receive both.
Yes, that's because the decision to withhold the chalice from the laity was a practical choice, not a doctrinal one. The concern was potentially spilling the Precious Blood, if I understand right. Nowadays the concern might be spreading disease--that threat undoubtedly led to some parishes withholding the chalice during coronatide. Not a problem y'all would have since the faithful's lips aren't directly touching the chalice.
 
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prodromos

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Not a problem y'all would have since the faithful's lips aren't directly touching the chalice.
Just the same spoon going into every person's mouth :)
 
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jas3

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Does anyone know what the practice is in Western Rite parishes? I assumed they would use the same form as Roman Catholics, under one kind for the laity, but I've never been to one.
 
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prodromos

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Does anyone know what the practice is in Western Rite parishes? I assumed they would use the same form as Roman Catholics, under one kind for the laity, but I've never been to one.
Western rite Orthodox will receive both.
 
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Hamlowe

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Just the same spoon going into every person's mouth :)
I didn’t think it directly touched anyone’s mouth except by mistake, but I haven’t been to many Eastern churches that use the spoon.
 
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prodromos

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I didn’t think it directly touched anyone’s mouth except by mistake, but I haven’t been to many Eastern churches that use the spoon.
I attend both a Greek parish and a Russian (ROCOR) parish and in both, the spoon goes into my mouth and my mouth closes over the spoon. We do not believe that disease can be transmitted by Him who is life itself. Unfortunately, during Covid, there were some parishes that altered the practice in order to placate health authorities (I presume that was the reason)
 
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Valletta

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What I find strange is that this practice of receiving only the one is that it is laity only. Your priests still receive both.
It became a common practice at the time when the false accusation was particularly challenged, the accusation that one did not receive both the Body and Blood of Jesus Christ when receiving a consecrated host. The practical reasons, that there is more of a change of spilling the Precious Blood, that the Precious Blood takes far more care to store for longer periods of time, that disease may be spread easier, that reception is much slower for large groups, and in some places alcoholics seek to receive the Precious Blood for alcoholic effects, all contribute to reception be more common under just one species.
 
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