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Does the Seventh-day Adventist Church Teach the Gospel?

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BobRyan

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given that "private opinions" of the Revelation are precisely what most :End Times" doctrines are based on.

Along with a lot of stuff that was never accepted into the Canon of Scripture that is accepted by the Church as a

And from a practical standpoint, just accept, or contrive, a "meaning" for a text that best suits your doctrinal presuppositions.
you are simply posting "wishful thinking". That only works for the surface readers that merely skim past the texts that don't meet with their preferences.

It is more helpful to have a "Bible fact" when reading a Bible text like Rev 14 or any other text of scripture.
Actually no, what Jipsah is posting is the established historical record
his fallacious statement "you just accept, or contrive a meaning for a text that best suits your doctrinal presupposition" quote no statement, no fact, no text at all

Please be serious
of how the books of the New Testament were gathered and preserved and how the New Testament canon was derived
Paul said his teaching was already being accepted a "The Word of God" in the first century.

And Jesus repeatedly appealed to "The scriptures" as well as Luke using the phrase "in ALL the scriptures" in Luke 24.

Acts 17:11 "they studied the scriptures" daily to SEE IF those things spoken by the Apostle Paul WERE SO.

Nothing there of the form "sorry we don't yet know what scripture is ... have to wait a few centuries for someone to tell us"
the New Testament does, as a matter of Bible Fact lack any kind of Table of Contents
1. And yet they were perfectly comfortable testing doctrine "by all the scriptures" in their own first century words.
2. And this thread is not about "when did all the scriptures get written". Rather this thread is more like "What is the Gospel"
3. Since this thread is about what Adventist's teach and the Adventist denomination was formed in the 1860, a point in time when even the most stubborn Bible student would know that the 66 books of the Bible were accepted by all denomiinations (with a few denominations accepting the 66 a few more) how is it you get stuck on whether all 66 books should be accepted for doctrinal gospel teaching????


How is this even a tiny bit confusing???
 
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reddogs

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Why do people assume they are speaking to a male - are they trying to be sarcastic by gentifying a person.

There is nothing that I said even slightly indicates Christ did not shed his blood for mankind on the cross for man. So where your mind is my "sister" I do not know. Oops I called you sister.

I think I said the Catholic Church, and it's not AI, AI is controlled by men and the coming One world government could be Babylon but will it have time to produce daughters as written in Revelation, considering the timeline of a three and a half year rule, even 7 years if One believes in the 7 year reign of the beast and his Antichrist .
My deepest apologies, I tend to react by instinct, should have checked and seen you were a sister, and a Baptist to boot, I love to hear a good Baptist sermon, they really believe. Now as for the term “Daughters of Babylon”, it is used to describe churches that, like Babylon the Great, have become apostate by clinging to false doctrines, worldly alliances, and divisions that contradict God’s truth. thus they are 'daughters of Babylon'. So as long as they follow the 'authority' of the church of Rome, then they will get the Mark of the Beast. or as the papacy is described as “the mother of harlots” and the Protestant denominations that still hold to its authority as “her daughters.”

Seventh Day Adventists observe the Sabbath on Saturday, which contrasts with the Catholic tradition of observing a substitute day of worship, Sunday. Seventh Day Adventists do not recognize the authority of the Pope or the Catholic Church. We see where they make clear how they see the 'daughter' churchs.

  • Our Sunday Visitor (1950):
    “Protestants… accept Sunday rather than Saturday as the day for public worship after the Catholic Church made the change… But the Protestant mind does not seem to realize that… in observing Sunday, they are accepting the authority of the spokesman for the Church, the pope.”
 
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The Liturgist

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Seventh Day Adventists observe the Sabbath on Saturday, which contrasts with the Catholic tradition of observing a substitute day of worship, Sunday. Seventh Day Adventists do not recognize the authority of the Pope or the Catholic Church. We see where they make clear how they see the 'daughter' churchs.

The Eastern and Oriental Orthodox churches (with the exception of some ethnically Ruthenian churches that were for a time under the control of the Roman church, for example in the US the congregations of the American Carpatho-Rusyn Orthodox Diocese and many parishes of the OCA, ROCOR and some of the Antiochians, and in Europe some parishes of the Polish Orthodox, Ukrainian Orthodox, Czech and Slovak Orthodox, and Lithuanian Orthodox (and probably some of the Romanian Orthodox, albeit not primarily the Romanian-speaking population of the Romanian Orthodox Church, for Romanians were Latin-speakers who were members of the Orthodox church, such as St. John Cassian, before their Eastern Latin dialect developed into the Romanian, Aromanian, Dalmatian and other Eastern Romance languages and in the case of Romanian also acquired Slavic influences such as the words “da” and “nyet” for yes and no), were never at any time under the control of the Pope of Rome, and indeed were excommunicated for rejecting the doctrine of Papal Supremacy in the case of the Eastern Orthodox, in the case of the Oriental Orthodox for rejecting the wording proposed at Chalcedon by Pope Leo I who used different terminology from that used by St. Cyril of Alexandria and his own predeccessor St. Celestine at the Council of Ephesus in rejecting Nestorianism, with the crypto-Nestorian Ibas conspiring to cause division (and with Nestorius, who was still alive and in comfortable exile, because while he did use violence against his opponents, the Orthodox did not use violence against him after the Council of Ephesus, fueling the fire by claiming that the Chalcedonian position was the one he had advocated, when this was manifestly not the case).

Our primary day of worship is the First Day, because it was on this day that Christ created the universe, rose from the dead, and on which the Holy Spirit descended (while the Holy Apostles and around 200 other disciples were praying in the Upper Room in the House of St. Mark in Jerusalem, which still exists by the way, it is a Syriac Orthodox monastery), Orthodox Christians non-legalistically observe the Sabbath on Saturday throughout the year by celebrating the Divine Liturgy in honor of the Rest of Christ on the Seventh Day after the creation of the Cosmos, and after the creation of man was completed on the Cross as prophesied in Genesis chapter 1, and also via typological analogy, the repose of the bodies of our departed loved ones in the Tomb now as they await the Resurrection, their souls alive with Christ - in a few cases their bodies and souls together with Christ in Heaven, specifically in the cases of the Holy Prophets St. Moses, St. Elijah and our glorious Lady Theotokos and Ever Virgin Mary, the Mother of God (since she gave birth to Christ, who is God, there is no way to deny her status as Theotokos without either denying that Christ is God Incarnate either by denying His deity outright or by saying that in His deity He is separate from the man Jesus, either personally or hypostatically, united by one will (which is also incorrect - our Lord, having united our fallen nature to Himself in order to restore and glorify it, and having endured but at no point succumbed to human temptation as you appeared to affirm in another thread, being fully God and fully man without change, confusion, separation or division, must therefore have both a human will and a divine will or a will - some of my fellow Eastern Orthodox incorrectly believe the Oriental Orthodox are Monothelites but in fact the schism between the Maronites and the Syriac Orthodox is believed to be due to the embrace of Monothelitism by the Maronites, who later entered into communion with the Roman church, which by no means makes them “daughters of Babylon” - that terminology is unacceptable with regards to any Christian church.

It would only be acceptable for a church which renounced the fundamental tenets of Christianity as summarized in the Nicene Creed, by for example denying the deity of Christ or his Humanity or His status as the Savior of humanity, and unfortunately this did happen in the case of some extreme Protestants who drifted into Arianism or Unitarianism just as it befell the former Orthodox of Alexandria who embraced Arianism and the Roman Catholics who left the Roman Catholic Church and fell under the influence of the Palmerian Catholic cult or certain Docetic cults such as the Albigensians, Bogomils, Paulicans, and modern day related groups, who deny the humanity of Christ or worship a divine feminine principle, or other grave theological errors such as the idea that we can save ourselves through righteous conduct and that Christ is merely the example to follow and not God saving us and glorifying us by voluntarily suffering the humiliation of becoming man, in the supreme act of love, trampling down death by death.

I would urge you to not refer to any Nicene Denomination using terminology such as “the harlot of Bablyon” or “daughters of Babylon” for they are preaching the Gospel as defined in the New Testament.
 
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The Liturgist

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No one has said that.

Where do you get that from???

I did not accuse anyone of saying that. Rather, in my post, I said
I didn’t say it started in revelation; since the Good News is an expression of God’s Love and Grace it is therefore an uncreated energy of God Himself.

Rather I’m speaking of the revelation of that news.

If you say that the form we need to believe in first appeared in the book you call Revelation, that I say ought to be called the Apocalypse, but six of one, half a dozen of another as they say - if that Gospel did not appear until that book, what of the Christians who lived, and were martyred or died in Christ before St. John received the Revelation on Patmos? Christians such as the Holy Protomartyr Stephen the Deacon, the first man to willingly give his life for Christ, and the Holy Apostle James the Great, and indeed the Holy Apostles Peter and Paul themselves.

Unless you’re saying knowledge of those three verses in Revelation is not required for salvation?

Which is it please?

That is to say, I am seeking to confirm that the OP is incorrect, by asking those Adventists who replied to affirm that knowledge of those three verses in Revelation is not required for Salvation.

Are you saying that three verses in question are not required knowledge of the Christian desiring to be saved, but that a Christian who did not have access to Revelation* could receive the Gospel from, for example, the four Gospels, indeed, the four Gospels alone, or an oral recitation of them.

*For example, those who died before St. John received it, or before it became widely distributed, or present in all texts, one of the many Syriac and Indian Christians of the Jacobite Orthodox Church in India and the Church of the East in Persia, Mesopotamia, India, China, Tibet, Mongolia, Yemen, Central Asia and Sri Lanka, who worshipped on every Seventh Day Sabbath in addition to the First Day who never heard the Apocalypse or read it, because the East Syriac version of the Peshitta does not include Revelation, 2 Peter, 2 John, 3 John or Jude, but does include everything else including most importantly those verses establishing the New Covenant (Mark 14:22-24), salvation by faith (John 3:16) and the Great Commission (Matthew 28:19) and the Incarnation (Luke ch. 1, John ch. 1, Matthew ch. 1-2), and the descent of the Holy Spirit (Luke ch. 2) and the saving work of Christ on the Cross, and the nature of God’s grace (Galatians 3:15-5:15, Romans, Ephesians).

The four Gospels were translated into Aramaic by themselves in the Third Century (we have two related manuscripts, the Curetonian Gospels and the Sinaitic Palimpsest, which are collectively referred to as the Vetus Syra and are interesting textually in that they’re related to the old Vetus Latina, the second century translation into vernacular Latin from the original Greek by St. Victor, the Patriarch of the Roman Catholic Church, who was responsible for translating the Gospels and the liturgy into Latin from Greek so that the less wealthy and less well educated people of Western Europe and parts of the Balkans, Dacia and Thracia (modern day Romania and Moldova) could receive it, the differences by the way between the Western text type ,the Byzantine text type and the Alexandrian text type as they are called are extremely minor, but most recent contemporary language translations like the NIV are translated from the “Minority Text” which is of the so-called “Alexandrian Text Type.”

They were translated individually in part due to the need to replace both oral recitation and a problematic Gospel Harmony, the diatessaron, by Tatian, who after producing a text that contained the four gospels harmonized into a single narrative, left the Christian faith and established his own quasi-Christian sect influenced by Bardesanes and Severian indeed before the Peshitta was translated in the fourth century, those Christians I mentioned (who at the time existed in India, Persia, Yemen and Mesopotamia and probabaly Sri Lanka, but it is not certain that they had reached China by that point, I would say its probable, we know they were there well before the genocide of Tamerlane that began in the 12th century - some texts incorrectly refer to them as Nestorians because in their exile Nestorian theologians did for a time influence the Persian Church, but the Church of the East adopted a non-Nestorian Christology around AD 600 under Mar Babai the Great, and entered a golden age of expansion across Asia and close relations with the other major Aramaic-speaking denominations, the Antiochian Orthodox and the Syriac Orthodox, and also produced St. Isaac the Syrian, who is venerated by all ancient Christians some of whom try to deny his status, confirmed archeologically, as a member of the Church of the East, - by the way, its worth noting according to archaeological evidence that this church was far larger than the Roman Catholic Church of the time, and at no time was the Church of the East under the control of or in any way subject to the Pope of Rome, and the attempt of Jesuits following the Portuguese conquest of the Malabar Coast to put the Indian dioceses of the Church of the East, home to the Mar Thoma Christians, under the Pope of Rome led to the Coonan Cross Oath, thus like most Orthodox churches, the Church of the East represents an independent and external verification of some Orthodox and mainstream Protestant and Roman Catholic doctrines which was never under Roman control and thus outside of the false Roman vs. “Bible Protestant” dichotomy.

The situation of not having the Bible available in a vernacular language, or only having some books available, persisted for most Christians until the past few centuries, but in most cases it was not intentional policy, but rather was due to the extreme cost of manuscripts. Only in a few cases in Northern Europe did the Roman church resist a vernacular translation, on the belief that their existing Latin translation was sufficient (which was true for Southern Europeans who even now have much less of a barrier of entry when it comes to the Vulgate, but for the Czechs, who were accustomed to hearing the Scripture in Church Slavonic, it was too much, and this led to the Unitas Fratrum, founded by St. Jan Hus and St. Jerome of Prague (also they were accusotmed to receiving the Eucharist in both species, which the Roman church had stopped doing but has since resumed, which is another reason by the way why using 19th century anti-Roman Catholic polemics is problematic - various Roman Catholic theologians spent much energy defending communion in one species only in the 19th and early 20th century, but at Vatican II communion in both kinds was endorsed for the Roman Rite and became normal in the 1970s in many places, although the Roman church also says communion in one kind is sufficient, to which I would agree, since there have been times when Christians in the Middle East have been unable to obtain actual wine and have had to make do with a kind of wine-substitute made by soaking raisins in water, due to Islamic persecution, resulting from Islamic intolerance of alcohol consumption.
 
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1. And yet they were perfectly comfortable testing doctrine "by all the scriptures" in their own first century words.

If you’re referring to the Bereans, they were referring to the Old Testament, which was used to test the doctrine of the New, and if you’re referring to the Apostolic instruction, this would also refer to the Old Testament and to whatsoever New Testament scripture you had received, if you had any at all (the churches of Armenia, Georgia, Ethiopia, Eritrea and of many other people all had the Gospel preached orally long before it was translated into the vernacular; likewise a great many Coptic Christians heard and followed the Gospel without ever reading a Bible, including St. Anthony the Great and most of the Desert Fathers and inumerable holy martyrs such as St. Mina and St. Abanoub the Child Martyr, heard the Gospel and lived it without being able to read or without being able to read the Bible, since it was not translated into Coptic in its entirety until the time of St Cyril the Great of Alexandria completed the Coptic translation of the Bible and the DIvine Liturgy of St. Mark and other services in the Fifth Century, in addition to dealing with Nestorius and Pelagius, likewise, obviously since Syriac-speaking Christians without knowledge of Greek or another language in which it had been translated, including bishops, could not even theoreticall test doctrine against the Apocalypse of St. John until it was translated by St. Philoxenus of Mabbug along with the other books of the Athanasian canon absent from the Peshitta (a Syriac Orthodox saint, the Roman Catholics regarded him as anathema as do unfortunately some of my own Eastern Orthodox coreligionists) in the sixth century.

Thus a legalistic interpretation of this instruction or an interpretation that requires all Scriptures to be present is contradicted not just by all archaeological and documentary evidence but by the blood of Christian martyrs who were killed by the Romans and Hindu and Persian and Mesopotamian Pagans and later by Islamic Pagans in the case of the East Syriac Christians and by the witness of the Desert Fathers and other Christians who lived without access to the Scriptural text itself.

2. And this thread is not about "when did all the scriptures get written". Rather this thread is more like "What is the Gospel"

If the Gospel is in the Apocalypse only as the OP asserted or if as some appeared to suggest, it requires the Apocalypse to be explained, it becomes a problem that St. John, because the other Apostles had been martyred by the time he received the Revelation on Patmos, and it took that much longer for his Apocaylpse to be included in the canon, and its late date and the unusual, apocalyptic nature of its content compared to the rest of the Old Testament caused many early Christians to suspect it of being a forgery (ultimately what led the Alexandrians and Cappadocians and others, and helped the decision of St. Athanasius to include it, is the thematic consistency with the rest of the Johannine corpus, but even now one can find pious Christians who regard it as canonical yet believe it was written in imitation of the Gospel of St. John but not by the same author, since there were stylistic differences, which can also be accounted for by the time elapsed between the writing of the two (the early church also recorded the Gospel According to John as being the last to be written, a point on which paradoxically most modern day left wing scholars do not dispute, but whereas the neo-Alogoi claim that it is inauthentic, the early church fathers wrote that St. John had sought to document things not documented in the synoptic Gospels, and this makes sense, particularly in light of the closing words of that Gospel). The point being, even saying that John 3:16 is required for salvation, or linking salvation to knowledge of any individual New Testament verse is extremely problematic.

Rather, based on the Creed, we must say simply being grafted onto the Body of Christ through Baptism and receiving the Holy Spirit and salvific living faith that comes with reception into His Church and of His Supper, the Eucharist, and faith that in Him the fullness of the Godhead dwelled bodily, and the reception, therefore, of God the Holy Spirit, who was sent by Christ the Incarnate Word of God to be our Comforter and Paraclete, is enough, and that the Scriptures exist to aid us in this respect, but they are not the Paraclete, nor are they the uncreated Word, rather the Word is Christ, and Scriptures (graphe) are the God-breathed record of the Prophecy of His Incarnation, His Incarnation in the nature of and salvation of the race of Humans, and the counsels of His Apostles, and the Prophecy of His Return, a guide that assists us in finding Christ, but not a substitute for Christ or the means of Grace in His Ordinances, the Sacraments of Baptism, the Eucharist and other things such as Holy Matrimony and the Annointing of the Sick with Oil, the uncreated Love of God the Father, the Grace of God the Son and the fellowship of God the Holy Spirit, ever one God.

Since this thread is about what Adventist's teach and the Adventist denomination was formed in the 1860, a point in time when even the most stubborn Bible student would know that the 66 books of the Bible were accepted by all denomiinations (with a few denominations accepting the 66 a few more) how is it you get stuck on whether all 66 books should be accepted for doctrinal gospel teaching????

In reply to this, firstly, it is not my point that all 27 books of the New Testament should be accepted - I support the Athanasian Canon. Rather, I am commenting on a historical reality. It was not the case, even in the 19th century, that all Christians - that is to say, all true Students of the Bible (a phrase we Nicene Christians should reclaim because the phrase “Bible Student” is abused by the Arian group known as the “Watchtower Bible and Tract Society” which paradoxically discourages Scriptural scholarship and critical thinking about the Bible) had access in the vernacular to all 27 books of the New Testament or to the various Old Testament canons (regarding which I would note that at the time the majority of Christians, and at present, to this date, the six largest denominational groups, namely the Roman Catholics, Eastern Orthodox, Anglicans, Oriental Orthodox, Lutherans and Calvinists, either use deuterocanonical books, or permit their use in the case of Lutherans (while also using some as canticles, since Lutherans and Anglicans both inherited Matins and Benedicite Omni Opera from the Longer Version of Daniel found in the Septuagint, the Greek translation that many prefer to the Masoretic text), or in the case of Calvinists, are members of a denominational group whose founder regarded Baruch to be protocanon, and some Calvinists also like these books; only a minority of Christians are actively opposed to the use of such books.

Which poses another issue, since Hebrews refers to 2 Maccabees, Jude quotes 1 Enoch (which only the Ethiopians have preserved in their canon, and which there are problems with as @Jipsah has pointed out particularly for denominations which would interpret it using the Antiochian literal-historical method of exegesis; the Ethiopians do not use it as a source of doctrine but regard it as allegorical Christological prophecy, which I believe Jude was also doing), and other aspects of the New Testament quote other parts of Deuterocanon, for example, the Golden Rule stressed by Christ our God first appears in Tobit, likewise Christ did not introduce the idea of forgiving others in order to receive forgiveness in His incarnation, but rather, this central Word, was, Logically, expressed beforehand - we find it in the Wisdom of Sirach, also breathed by God the Holy Spirit, and St. Paul’s study of idolatry and the human difficulty recognizing God in Romans 1:20-32 is based upon a meditation in Chapter 13 of Wisdom (chapter 2 of which is a clear and explicit prophecy of the Passion of Christ very simiilar to the Songs of the Suffering Servant of St. Isaiah the Prophet, albeit of Solomonic inspiration, in a work compiled just over 93 years before that Passion, which is one of many reasons why that work was so important to the Early Church, so that even among those who did not regard it as protocanonical favored the use of Wisdom for catechetical purposes.

If Adventists regard hearing Revelation as a requirement for understanding the Gospel and at the same time take the opposite view with regards to the Deuterocanon, that would be very problematic.
 
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his fallacious statement "you just accept, or contrive a meaning for a text that best suits your doctrinal presupposition" quote no statement, no fact, no text at all

Please be serious

You appear to have forgotten that our pious Anglican friend @Jipsah was replying to you saying this to me:

In any case, you don't have to accept the text, you have free will

Which was in reply to me saying:

You are welcomed to your private opinion of course.
For many of us, we understand that the NT texts were being read and accepted by Christians long before the 4th century.

Rev 14:6-12 IS the message of 'those three angels'.
Have you read the text?? That is what it says

In any case, you don't have to accept the text, you have free will

To which I was reiterating his reply - that the process by which the New Testament canon was developed and promulgated is well documented.

I have read the text but disagree with your interpretation of it, and I resent you once again having asserted that if I disagree with the Adventist interpretation of a text that I disagree with the text. For example, one of the most sacred texts in Scripture to me is Mark chapter 7, which Adventists routinely accuse me of disregarding, which is paradoxical because the tradition that our Lord was objecting to in that text is not the Holy Tradition St. Paul was speaking of but was rather a legalistic tradition, and yet when I speak out against doctrines which strike me as legalistic and appeal to the Holy Tradition as received by my denomination (and perhaps we don’t have it right, I think we do based on the parallels between our beliefs and those of the other major denominations and also based on the writings of the Early Church Fathers, but we know there is a tradition that St. Paul was referring to in 1 Corinthians 11:2 and 2 Thessalonians 2:15 and 2:37 and that tradition is not the one Christ condemned in Mark 7:13 or any other false tradition (which would come under the rebuke of St. Paul in Colossians 2:8-2:16), so my approach to find out what St. Paul is referring to has simply been to read what the Apostles wrote, what the Early Church Fathers who according to the archaeological and documentary evidence preserved, curated and finalized our New Testament Canon taught, and then compare that to modern doctrines, and the results are essentially what one finds in the Oriental Orthodox, High Church Anglican, confessional Lutheran, Assyrian, Roman Catholic, traditional Old Catholic, liturgical Methodist, Eastern Orthodox, historic Moravian, Reformed Catholic / Scoto-Catholic, liturgical Congregationalist and related churches - basically those churches where one finds a belief in the Real Presence of Christ in the Eucharist, liturgical worship, the veneration of the Theotokos, and other things.

But more broadly, because God is loving, we can see Christianity present even in denominations which are lacking some of these features but are still Nicene. Indeed I find a great deal of beauty in the Salvation Army and love their music and their charitable works, despite the regrettable Quaker influence on their founder making them a rare case of a denomination which until very recently did not celebrate the Eucharist or perform Baptisms at all (but conversely, fortunately, unlike some Quakers, did not object to its members receiving those sacraments from other churches, for which reason members of the Salvation Army are regarded as Christians on this forum and there was and perhaps still is a denominational forum for them although it has not lately been very active. The work of the Salvation Army along with that of the Anglo Catholic segment of the Church of England was essential in relieving the suffering of the urban poor in London, although only the latter group had to work while also being persecuted for wearing chasubles despite the use of such chasubles actually being correct according to the Ornaments Rubric in the Book of Common Prayer (thus ironically the Act of Uniformity mandated adherence to the BCP in Anglican parishes, the Ornaments Rubric mandated the use of such vestments as were used during the reign of King Edward VI, while canonical legislation and judicial opinions prohibited the wearing of such vestments, which is why I agree with Adventists that religious persecution in general is wrong.

But in some cases, for example, on matters of history, it is not a question of private opinion because we actually have archaeological and documentary evidence, whereas in the case of many Scriptural verses there is room for debate on what they mean, yet consistently I am accused of disagreeing with a verse of Scripture because I disagree with how Adventists interpret it. This is particularly frustrating in the case of the Apocalypse, whereas, as @Jipsah pointed out, the work is Eschatological - my private opinion does not exist, since to a large extent the precise meaning is, according to 2 Peter 1:20, unknowable, outside of the basic doctrine of the Church, and should not be something that I form a private opinion about, nor endorse the private opinion of others, but rather, it is an area where only the decisions of a council received under the guidance of the Holy Spirit as ecumenical by the entire Church, of which there have been at most ten (Jerusalem, in Acts 15, and Nicaea, Constantinople, Ephesus, and, with the proviso that the OO doctrine reflects their theological determinations even if there is a disagreement over formulations or a lack of OO participation, Chalcedon, Constantinople II, Constantinople III and Nicaea II, and additionally, one could make a case for the Photian Synod and the Palamist Synods). Outside of the decision of an ecumenical council and in the absence of clear interpretative guidance from elsewhere but in the presence of a direct rebuke from St. Peter concerning private interpretation (which becomes even more poignant if one reads the Aramaic translation “no prophecy is an exposition of itself”, in other words, that without the event either happening or it being revealed what the prophecy means, we cannot know), I feel I cannot endorse any 19th century interpretation of the Apocalypse. This does not mean I deny the verses in question, merely that I am restrained by the Second Epistle of St. Peter from interpreting them outside of existing Orthodox interpretation, which is as you know fully Amillenial, Chiliasm having been rejected by the fathers at the Council of Constantinople in 381 AD.

I enthusiastically support that canon, and regard it as a major reason as to why all Christians should pay more attention to the good work of the Council of Nicaea, where St. Athanasius, who formulated that canon, led the prosecution of Arius (Emperor Constantine entered the council undecided, then agreed with it, but then in his dotage came under the influence of the sinister Arian bishop Eusebius of Nicomedia, who converted his son Constantius to Arianism, which resulted in a persecution of Christians resuming that lasted even into the reign of Theodosius I, who was the Emperor who actually made Christianity the state religion (a point where in the past I have encountered Adventists who were under the incorrect belief that St. Constantine did this, but in fact it was St. Theodosius who made Christianity the state religion and prohibited Paganism as well as Arianism, Manichaenism and other heresies, and stopped the slaugher of animals to idols of demons by closing the Pagan temples, and who smashed the Altar of Victory in the Roman Senate - all established facts, but even St. Theodosius was frightened of the growing political influence of Gothic tribes which had been taught the false gospel of Arius and thus in 386 ordered St. Ambrose of Milan to turn over a major church in Milan to the Arians in the interests of public order - St. Ambrose refused and with his most loyal followers, held a vigil in that church until Theodosius repented of his error, and also concurrently introduced, according to his own diary, antiphonal singing, which had previously been the norm in the Greek church since the time of St. Ignatius of Antioch in the first century, who introduced it after dreaming of choirs of angels taking turns in praising Christ, but was not at the time normal in the West - Western hymnody really starts with St. Ambrose, and indeed monotone siniging, which had been the norm, actually continued in the West in Low Masses until the ninth century (and was later elegantly revived by the Anglicans in the 19th century and one occasionally will hear it in a high church Anglican parish).
 
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Our Sunday Visitor (1950):
“Protestants… accept Sunday rather than Saturday as the day for public worship after the Catholic Church made the change… But the Protestant mind does not seem to realize that… in observing Sunday, they are accepting the authority of the spokesman for the Church, the pope.”

That argument is illogical (actually, it contains at least thirteen logical fallacies) as well as being historically inaccurate and demeaning of the intelligence of non-Sabbatarian Protestants.

I will begin by reiterate that the Bishop of Rome never had authority over the Eastern Orthodox (except for some Eastern Europeans primarily of Carpatho-Rusyn and Lemko ethnicity (commonly called Ruthenians or Carpathians, an ethnic group found in Ukraine, Belarus, Romania, Moldova, Poland, Hungary, Slovakia, and Czechia and a few other places, such as in parts of the Balkans) and also the Czech and Slovak Orthodox who were forcibly incorporated into the Ruthenian Catholic and Roman Catholic churches respectively, but who later left), Oriental Orthodox or the Church of the East, yet they always worshipped on Sunday (in addition to worshipping on the Seventh Day), but the Sunday worship was the primary day of worship.

However it appears that most Adventists of the 1950s were unaware of the existence of the Orthodox and those who were simply believed we were in the same category as Lutherans, Anglicans and other Protestants who retained those aspects of Roman praxis that they believed, following very careful scrutiny, were compatible with Scripture. Bu this was not the case for the simple reason tht the Orthodox were never under the Pope, indeed, the majority Greek Orthodox bishops in attendance at the Sixth Ecumenical Synod in Constantinople actually anathematized a Pope, Honorius I, for promoting Monothelitism.

Additionally the remark is also extremely offensive because it presupposes that one could not independently come to the conclusion, as many Protestant thinkers who rejected the idea of Roman tradition being of any value, did, that the First Day was the ideal day for Christian worship. While most of those who rejected Roman tradition outright I regard as having proceeded from the basis of an ad hominem fallacy and therefore of being unreasonable, Alogoi, and since Christ is the Logos, I will not accept doctrines from theologians who do not use Logic, that sacred gift of the Rational faculties that God gave us that separates us from irrational beasts), some were sophisticated systematic theologians who did use reason, such as Karl Barth, whose neo-Orthodoxy is interesting in that he managed to reconstruct most elements of traditional Christianity without attempting to do so and while expressly rejecting what Calvinists call the Consensus Patri (Patristic Consensus) or Church Tradition as sources of doctrine. And he was not alone.

Essentially the remark you quote ignores the historical existence of the Orthodox and denies the theological agency of non-Sabbatarian Protestants and attributes, without evidence, on the basis of an appeal to unqualified authority beliefs on the Sabbath to the Pope, excluding any possibility that Protestants might actually chose to worship on the First Day for other compelling reasons, for example, that being the day of the week that Christ our God ascended from the dead, his tomb being revealed empty to the Myrhh Bearing Women and began appearing to the remaining faithful Disciples, and that also being the day of the week that God the Holy Spirit descended as Christ our God had promised before ascending to sit at the right hand of His unoriginate Father, who, together with His only begotten Son and His Holy Spirit, we address all honor glory and worship, three coequal, coeternal persons, one God, the Holy, Consubstantial and Undivided Trinity now and ever and unto the ages.

Thus, that argument is to be rejected, and Adventists would be well-advised to not make use of that document, for the aforementioned reasons, and because it is extremely fallacious, containing at least these thirteen logical fallacies (some of these overlap with the historical and spiritual points I stressed above, but in this list, I am approaching them from the issue of errors of reasoning):

  1. False dichotomy / false dilemma: It treats the issue as though there are only two options: Saturday Sabbath observance or submission to papal authority. It ignores the ancient Orthodox, Oriental Orthodox, and Church of the East practice of Sunday worship apart from papal jurisdiction.
  2. False cause: It assumes that because Roman Catholics observe Sunday, and Protestants also observe Sunday, Protestants must be observing Sunday because of papal authority.
  3. Equivocation: It shifts between different meanings of “Catholic Church”: the ancient universal Church, the Roman Catholic Church, and the papal office specifically.
  4. Non sequitur: Even if Protestants inherited Sunday worship through the Western Church, it does not follow that they thereby accept the pope’s authority.
  5. Begging the question: It assumes the very point under dispute: that the pope is “the spokesman for the Church” with authority to define Christian worship for all Christians.
  6. Historical omission / suppressed evidence: It ignores the existence of Eastern Orthodox, Oriental Orthodox, and Assyrian Christians, who worship on Sunday without accepting papal supremacy.
  7. Category error: It confuses several distinct questions: the Jewish Sabbath, the Christian Lord’s Day, public Eucharistic worship, civil rest laws, and papal authority.
  8. Genetic fallacy: It tries to discredit Sunday worship by attacking its alleged source rather than addressing the theological and historical reasons Christians worship on the First Day.
  9. Straw man: It implies that non-Sabbatarian Protestants keep Sunday merely out of unconscious obedience to Rome, rather than because many have articulated independent biblical and theological reasons for doing so.
  10. Appeal to unqualified authority: It treats a Roman Catholic polemical claim about papal authority as though it proves the actual historical and theological origin of Sunday worship.
  11. Denial of theological agency: It denies that Protestants, Orthodox, Oriental Orthodox, and Church of the East Christians could have reasoned theological grounds for worshipping on Sunday.
  12. Overgeneralization: It speaks of “Protestants” as though all Protestants have the same reasoning, ecclesiology, and relationship to inherited Western Christian practice.
  13. Special pleading / selective traditionalism: It uses Roman Catholic claims when they are useful against Protestants, while ignoring the broader apostolic and patristic witness when that witness contradicts Adventist assumptions.
 
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BobRyan

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To which I was reiterating his reply - that the process by which the New Testament canon was developed and promulgated is well documented.
Every topic is not "how was the NT canon formalized over the centuries". Some topics are like this one , about what the Gospel is and who is teaching it.

In this case the topic deals with a denomination officially organized in the 1860's... long after every story/scenario about when the New Testament taught the gospel.

I think we both agree at that point.
I have read the text but disagree with your interpretation
no doubt we can say that about a great number of Bible topics

However in Acts 17:11 we see one of many examples of people of one religious POV agreeing with the newly created Christian church POV based on "studying the scriptures to SEE IF those things are so that were being taught" by the new Christian group. In this case nonChristian Jews agreeing with the Christian teaching of Paul.

How did they do it according to the text? "They studied the scriptures daily to see if those things were so" Acts 17:11 (might this be another example of things you claim we cannot read without someone telling us what to think?)

That is an easy one (some may say) since both sides had the same OT scripture in Acts 17:11.

Well then we are happy to notice that you and I both have the same 27 book New Testament to answer the question about what it says regarding the gospel and who teaches it.

It does not get any easier than this.
of it, and I resent you once again having asserted that if I disagree with the Adventist interpretation of a text that I disagree with the text.
Or we simply read the text and point to it as proof.

Then you can differ by saying "the text means this other thing... that first must be read in to the text" or basically anything you wish
For example, one of the most sacred texts in Scripture to me is Mark chapter 7
agreed. Another easy to read text
, which Adventists routinely accuse me of disregarding, which is paradoxical because the tradition that our Lord was objecting to in that text is not the Holy Tradition St. Paul was speaking of but was rather a legalistic tradition,
in context the Jews in Mark 7 were not saying "this teaching is our legalistic tradition it is not infallible holy tradition" and we both know it.

Rather they regarded stuff they made up as infallible tradition
 
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SabbathBlessings

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in context the Jews in Mark 7 were not saying "this teaching is our legalistic tradition it is not infallible holy tradition" and we both know it.

Rather they regarded stuff they made up as infallible

Its not as if Adventists wrote this and smuggled this in God's Words. We just happen to believe Jesus and His teachings. Which is related to the everlasting gospel-fearing God Exo20:20 Ecc12:13-14 Rev14:6-12 over our fear of God through men's traditions what Jesus condemned Isa 29:13 and right worship to God over wrong worship according to Jesus Himself. Instead of getting offended, I would carefully and prayerfully consider what Jesus is teaching.

Mat 15: 3 He answered them, “And why do you break the commandment of God for the sake of your tradition? 4 For God commanded, ‘Honor your father and your mother,’ and, ‘Whoever reviles father or mother must surely die.’ 5 But you say, ‘If anyone tells his father or his mother, “What you would have gained from me is given to God,”[a] 6 he need not honor his father.So for the sake of your tradition you have made void the word of God. 7 You hypocrites! Well did Isaiah prophesy of you, when he said:

8 “‘This people honors me with their lips,
but their heart is far from me;
9 in vain do they worship me,
teaching as doctrines the commandments of men.’”


And its not that Paul taught against Jesus he said everything had to be according to Christ. So any tradition that we may do cannot interfere with God's commandments because that is according to Christ- written and spoken by Him Exo31:18 including the 4th commandment that points to Him as our Creator Exo20:11 the only God we are called to worship Rev14:7

Col 2:8 Beware lest anyone cheat you through philosophy and empty deceit, according to the tradition of men, according to the basic principles of the world, and not according to Christ.

So its going to be a hard battle to claim the apotles taught to lay aside one of God's commandments over "sacred tradition" when Paul himself followed the example of Christ Luke4:16 Acts 17:2 Acts 13:44 Acts 15:21 Acts 18:4 because everything must be according to Christ. Christ told us to keep God's commandments and not break the least of these commandments Mat5:19-30 laying them aside for men's traditions makes the word of God void. That's really serious and I see why keeping God's commandments and the faith of Jesus is part of the everlasting gospel. Why we are being called back to this.
 
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BobRyan

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  • Our Sunday Visitor (1950):
    “Protestants… accept Sunday rather than Saturday as the day for public worship after the Catholic Church made the change… But the Protestant mind does not seem to realize that… in observing Sunday, they are accepting the authority of the spokesman for the Church, the pope.”
(Since both Reddogs and Liturgist are posting on the topic above)

The Faith Explained
commentary on the Baltimore Catechism -

1965 -- first published 1959
(from "The Faith Explained" page 243
"we know that in the O.T it was the seventh day of the week - the Sabbath day- which was observed as the Lord's day. that was the law as God gave it...'remember to keep holy the Sabbath day.. the early Christian church determined as the Lord's day the first day of the week. That the church had the right to make such a law is evident...​
The reason for changing the Lord's day from Saturday to Sunday lies in the fact that to the Christian church the first day of the week had been made double holy...​
nothing is said in the bible about the change of the Lord's day from Saturday to Sunday..that is why we find so illogical the attitude of many non-Catholic who say they will believe nothing unless they can find it in the bible and yet will continue to keep Sunday as the Lord's day on the say-so of the Catholic church"


Proof that this view has been around ... for a while.


1946


In the Convert's Catechism of Catholic Doctrine, we read:
Q. Which is the Sabbath day?
A. Saturday is the Sabbath day.

Q. Why do we observe Sunday instead of Saturday?
A. We observe Sunday instead of Saturday because the Catholic Church, in the Council of Laodicea, (AD 336) transferred the solemnity from Saturday to Sunday….

Q. Why did the Catholic Church substitute Sunday for Saturday?
A. The Church substituted Sunday for Saturday, because Christ rose from the dead on a Sunday, and the Holy Ghost descended upon the Apostles on a Sunday.

Q. By what authority did the Church substitute Sunday for Saturday?
A. The Church substituted Sunday for Saturday by the plenitude of that divine power which Jesus Christ bestowed upon her!
Rev. Peter Geiermann, C.SS.R., (1946), p. 50.


1566
In the Catechism of the Council of Trent,
"The Church of God has thought it well to transfer the celebration and observance of the Sabbath to Sunday!
p 402, second revised edition (English), 1937. (First published in 1566)

Essentially the remark you quote ignores the historical existence of the Orthodox
The fact that the statements I quote above were made by some other denomination than my own, does not deny the existence of any denomination. The argument made there is not logical
and denies the theological agency of non-Sabbatarian Protestants and attributes
pointing to the flaws in their claims does not deny them "theological agency".

To 'deny theological agency' to a group means to deny that they can "independently think about, question, or make decisions about God, faith, and spiritual matters. It assumes that only certain people (like priests or leaders) have the right to define religious truth"

framing objections as denying theological agency, is not logical

, without evidence, on the basis of an appeal to unqualified authority beliefs on the Sabbath to the Pope
quoting the papacy's own documents is reasonable when stating their historic positions. This is irrefutable
, excluding any possibility that Protestants might actually chose to worship on the First Day for other compelling reasons, for example, that being the day of the week that Christ our God ascended from the dead, his tomb being revealed empty to the Myrhh Bearing Women and began appearing to the remaining faithful Disciples, .
No one is excluding anyone from supposing anything they wish.
 
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BobRyan

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Again, I will continue to press that there is only one gospel & you are trying to redefine it using Revelation 14 - you are preaching a system of worship & obedience & calling that the gospel.
Is it your claim that the Apostle John in Rev 14:6-7 is preaching "another gospel" when he speaks of an "Angel having the everlasting gospel to preach to the whole world - saying ..." ?

how about when Paul says it in Rom 2:11-16 saying that God will judge all mankind through Jesus Christ "according to my gospel', is Paul also teaching "another gospel" in your POV?
 
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The Liturgist

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Every topic is not "how was the NT canon formalized over the centuries".

Strawman fallacy, also a red herring and a bit of an ad hominem, in that you open with a trifecta of unpleasant logical fallacies in which you misrepresented my argument as being about when the NT canon was formed, mischaracterized my threads, because I have brought up more than once the history of the New Testament canon, and are implying an intent on my end to derail the topic, when none of this is the case - rather, you have simply not grasped what my point is. This kind of argument does not engage with what I’m saying but rather merely seeks to discredit it and it is not reasonable, since these are in fact logical fallacies which should be avoided.

Because St. Paul instructs us to be charitable, and Christ commands us to love one another, I will explain my point, in response to the following assertion with which I agree:

Some topics are like this one , about what the Gospel is and who is teaching it.

Indeed they are, and a problem arises if we make the Gospel dependent upon a particular text within the New Testament that was not available to all Christians in all times or in all places.

The Gospel is not an individual verse or set of verses within the New Testament or even the New Testament entire, rather, it is the good news of Salvation which can be expounded from the New Testament when the New Testament is correctly read. It is also documented, as Christ Himself said in Luke ch. 24, in the Old Testament, primarily prophetically but also in terms of the moral instructions - indeed when the Apostles began to preach, the four Gospels and the Epistles of St. Paul to the various churches and his pastoral epistles to Saints Timothy, Titus and Philemon, and the Epistle to the Hebrews, and the General Epistles of Saints Peter, John, James and Jude, and the Acts of the Apostles, and the Apocalypse of St. John, had not yet been written, and would not be finished until the end of the century, so the Apostles preached the Gospel using Old Testament texts.

My point is that an interpretation of the Gospel that says that it is specifically contained within three verses of the Apocalypse is untenable, not just because the Apocalypse was the last book of the New Testament to be written, nor because it took a long time for all churches to include it in their canon (and indeed Martin Luther deprecated it and came close to not including it, along with Hebrews, Jude and James in the Luther Bible, but was fortunately persuaded not to do this, but he did place the books he regarded as antilegomenna in the back). There were some Christian churches which had the Apocalypse before the Athanasian Canon had been promulgated, by the way - my only point in mentioning the date of its promulgation is that it was the universal adoption of that canon, included in the 39th Paschal Encyclical, for the New Testament, that ensured that eventually, everyone wound up with access to the Apocalypse, but this process took a long time and indeed as far as East Syriac Christians are concerned, they still lack optimal access to this book, since even though the Apocalypse has been acknowledged by the Church of the East as canonical for some time, it was never added to the East Syriac Peshitta.

Rather, since historically so many Christians have been illiterate, and since it took the first century for the New Testament to be compiled, and much longer than that for the canonical New Testament to be promulgated free from spurious apocrypha as one finds in the oldest Greek manuscripts such as Laodiceans or 1 Barnabas, and since the sacred Scriptures are a means to an end, that being of knowing of the incarnation of the Logos, and are not themselves the Logos, and indeed can be preached from incorrectly even if all correct texts are present with no spurious texts, imposing a dependency of knowledge upon the laity, which appeared to be suggested by the idea of those three verses in the Apocalypse being of some unique importance in the definition of the Gospel, exceeding that of other parts of the New Testament, is to be rejected.

Additionally as I previously addressed, the foundation of the Adventist denomination in the 19th century does not alter this point, since while more Christians had access to bibles and the Athanasian canon was extremely widespread, it had not yet reached the near-universal extent of the present, and additionally illiteracy was much more common.
 
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The Liturgist

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pointing to the flaws in their claims does not deny them "theological agency".

To 'deny theological agency' to a group means to deny that they can "independently think about, question, or make decisions about God, faith, and spiritual matters. It assumes that only certain people (like priests or leaders) have the right to define religious truth"

framing objections as denying theological agency, is not logical

The argument that anyone who worships on Sunday does so because they’re following the instructions of the Pope, which was the argument I was responding to, denies theological agency.

quoting the papacy's own documents is reasonable when stating their historic positions. This is irrefutable

It is refutable when discussing denominations not under the authority of the Pope, that never were under the authority of the Bishop of Rome, such as the Orthodox or the Protestants, since the argument I was referring to directly claimed that the reason why Protestants worshipped on Sunday was due to the Pope.

No one is excluding anyone from supposing anything they wish

Our Sunday Visitor (1950) makes the claim that “ “Protestants… accept Sunday rather than Saturday as the day for public worship after the Catholic Church made the change… But the Protestant mind does not seem to realize that… in observing Sunday, they are accepting the authority of the spokesman for the Church, the pope.” - which manifestly excludes the possibility of Protestants choosing to worship on Sunday of their own accord for their own theological reason without accepting the authority of the Pope.

That statement is fallacious for the reasons I enumerated.
 
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The Liturgist

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The Faith Explained
commentary on the Baltimore Catechism -

1965 -- first published 1959
(from "The Faith Explained" page 243
"we know that in the O.T it was the seventh day of the week - the Sabbath day- which was observed as the Lord's day. that was the law as God gave it...'remember to keep holy the Sabbath day.. the early Christian church determined as the Lord's day the first day of the week. That the church had the right to make such a law is evident...The reason for changing the Lord's day from Saturday to Sunday lies in the fact that to the Christian church the first day of the week had been made double holy...nothing is said in the bible about the change of the Lord's day from Saturday to Sunday..that is why we find so illogical the attitude of many non-Catholic who say they will believe nothing unless they can find it in the bible and yet will continue to keep Sunday as the Lord's day on the say-so of the Catholic church"

Proof that this view has been around ... for a while.


1946


In the Convert's Catechism of Catholic Doctrine, we read:
Q. Which is the Sabbath day?
A. Saturday is the Sabbath day.

Q. Why do we observe Sunday instead of Saturday?
A. We observe Sunday instead of Saturday because the Catholic Church, in the Council of Laodicea, (AD 336) transferred the solemnity from Saturday to Sunday….

Q. Why did the Catholic Church substitute Sunday for Saturday?
A. The Church substituted Sunday for Saturday, because Christ rose from the dead on a Sunday, and the Holy Ghost descended upon the Apostles on a Sunday.

Q. By what authority did the Church substitute Sunday for Saturday?
A. The Church substituted Sunday for Saturday by the plenitude of that divine power which Jesus Christ bestowed upon her!
Rev. Peter Geiermann, C.SS.R., (1946), p. 50.


1566
In the Catechism of the Council of Trent,
"The Church of God has thought it well to transfer the celebration and observance of the Sabbath to Sunday!
p 402, second revised edition (English), 1937. (First published in 1566)

Those documents are Roman Catholic documents and have no relevance or bearing on why Protestants or Orthodox Christians worship on Sunday, which is specifically what I was referring to. If a Roman Catholic were to claim we worship on Sunday because of them it would be as logically fallacious as the document I referred to making the claim.
 

The Liturgist

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in context the Jews in Mark 7 were not saying "this teaching is our legalistic tradition it is not infallible holy tradition" and we both know it.

Rather they regarded stuff they made up as infallible tradition

Firstly, you’ve introduced a word “Infallible” which was not present in my post, which continues the pattern of misrepresenting my arguments, which is a not only uncharitable but logically fallacious, since it constitutes a strawman attack.

It is also a strawman and an ad hominemn, to imply that I am relying on subterfuge in my argument. More logical fallacies of a disagreeable nature.

Now are you suggesting that Mark 7:13 proscribes Holy Tradition as a concept? Because if so, such a reading contradicts the plain reading of 2 Thessalonians 2:15 and 2:37 and 1 Corinthians 11:2, as understood by Orthodox and those Protestants.
 
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reddogs

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The Word of God is Jesus Christ Himself, according to John 1:1

The Bible does not assign the label “The harlot of Babylon” to the Roman Catholic Church or any other Christian denomination.
Neither does the Bible 'assign the label' "Trinity" to the GodHead, but the characteristics lead to men calling it that. That is why you have to read the prophecies in Gods Word and comprehend who it is identifying by its characteristics, which history can quickly confirm.
 
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BobRyan

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Firstly, you’ve introduced a word “Infallible” which was not present in my post,
My argument is that the Jews in Mark 7 considered the "tradition" Christ was attacking to be within the domain of what they considered to be infallible tradition
which continues the pattern of misrepresenting my arguments
You are free to have whatever argument you wish.


Now are you suggesting that Mark 7:13 proscribes Holy Tradition as a concept?
I am saying Mark 7 documents an attempt by the Jews to elevate their made up , man made traditions to the point of having it contradict scripture and choosing tradition over scripture according to Christ. They themselves were not claiming to contradict scripture with their supposedly infallible traditions, but Christ points out that they were doing it not just in one case but in His words "you do many such things as this"

My argument is not that "all tradition must be in err" but rather that all must be tested.
 
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BobRyan

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The argument that anyone who worships on Sunday does so because they’re following the instructions of the Pope, which was the argument I was responding to, denies theological agency.



It is refutable when discussing denominations not under the authority of the Pope, that never were under the authority of the Bishop of Rome, such as the Orthodox or the Protestants, since the argument I was referring to directly claimed that the reason why Protestants worshipped on Sunday was due to the Pope.

Our Sunday Visitor (1950) makes the claim that “ “Protestants… accept Sunday rather than Saturday as the day for public worship after the Catholic Church made the change… But the Protestant mind does not seem to realize that… in observing Sunday, they are accepting the authority of the spokesman for the Church, the pope.” - which manifestly excludes the possibility of Protestants choosing to worship on Sunday of their own accord for their own theological reason without accepting the authority of the Pope.

That statement is fallacious for the reasons I enumerated.
That statement I quoted did not say :
"Protestants argue that the Catholic church is their leader in deciding to transition Sabbath from Saturday to Sunday".

Neither my posts nor any Catholic document I quoted claimed that:
- "protestants argue that they are simply trying to follow the Catholic church in substituting Sunday for Saturday when it comes to the Sabbath commandment".

Their argument is that since in actual fact the opposing group(s) have no Bible basis for the change in Sabbath their acceptance of the change represents a tacit admission of the Catholic Churches authority to make the change.

Of course none of the opposing groups will agree with that conclusion by the Catholic church (nor does the Catholic statement say they will agree), but then it is up to them to show that the "no Bible support for the change" claim is not a correct statement about the Bible support for the change.


Those documents are Roman Catholic documents and have no relevance or bearing on why Protestants or Orthodox Christians worship on Sunday
False.

Catholics and any/everyone else have the right to evaluate something and notice if a given position has no basis in Bible fact.

Those who claim they do have a Bible reason for their position are always free to give their response to such arguments.
If a Roman Catholic were to claim we worship on Sunday because of them it would be as logically fallacious
No it would be logically sound if they have the historic facts and the Bible evidence to support that idea.

It does not mean you have to agree with it.

but simply ignoring all the Biblical and historic facts that they appeal to and saying you don't like their conclusion, is not as compelling as would be a "more thorough attention-to-details" response would be
 
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BobRyan

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1965 -- first published 1959
(from "The Faith Explained" page 243
"we know that in the O.T it was the seventh day of the week - the Sabbath day- which was observed as the Lord's day. that was the law as God gave it...'remember to keep holy the Sabbath day.. the early Christian church determined as the Lord's day the first day of the week. That the church had the right to make such a law is evident...​
The reason for changing the Lord's day from Saturday to Sunday lies in the fact that to the Christian church the first day of the week had been made double holy...​
nothing is said in the bible about the change of the Lord's day from Saturday to Sunday..that is why we find so illogical the attitude of many non-Catholic who say they will believe nothing unless they can find it in the bible and yet will continue to keep Sunday as the Lord's day on the say-so of the Catholic church"
Those documents are Roman Catholic documents and have no relevance or bearing on why Protestants or Orthodox Christians worship on Sunday,
That would only be true of those Protestants and Orhtodox groups were not using scripture or tradition to make their case for Sunday.

The Catholic document above appeals to details in both scripture and tradition.

Feel free to differ. But refer to facts, other than the fact that you do not agree with the Catholic conclusion

Hint the Catholic statement is not "The Protestants and Orthodox merely come to us and ask us what day the Sabbath refers to today'
 
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