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List of Totally or Partially Omitted, Transposed and Interpolated Bible Passages

WordSword

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Most good Bibles today (electronic and physical), including KJV, NKJV, NASB, NIV, HCSB, and ASV have footnotes that identify variants in Greek texts. So I guess I don't know how using one of those Bibles "will effect one’s spiritual growth, not receiving all of God’s Word and being exposed to misleading information".

Your post here makes it seem like the Bibles we use today are vastly different in content. But the opposite is true. There are many good articles on the subject. And because of the footnotes I mentioned above, it is easy for today's reader to be well informed of the significant variants. So I guess I don't understand why you're being so negative.
The foot notes in the modern translations are there to show that they do not belong in the Word and have been added. This is a false claim, the footnotes in the Traditional Bibles are to show that words and phrases have been omitted.

The crux of the matter is, you going to waste time studying Bibles which do not contain all of the Word (Luk 4:4); Only versions from the Majority Text are plenary-inspired. appreciate your reply!
 
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PrincetonGuy

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I did NOT write that Genesis 4:8 was missing in the KJV; I wrote that the sentence, “Let us go out to the field” is missing from Genesis 4:8 (see post #8 in this thread). This sentence is very important because the words were spoken by Cain to Abel. Cain hated Abel and wanted to kill him secretly so he suggested to Abel that they go out to the field together. Therefore, the murder of Abel was willful, deliberate, and premeditated and hence a case of first-degree murder rather than some lesser kind of homicide.
 
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NewLifeInChristJesus

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Jesus did not give any specifics on what work can be done on Sabbath apart from "good works", that good works means it would still be good works if one on other days.

"Lord of the Sabbath" means if Jesus is the Lord of the Sabbath, is he going to be a tyrant about it or merciful? Did din't seem to care what you do on that day as long as it's not evil / malevolent.
Being Lord of the Sabbath means His Lordship extends even to matters related to the Sabbath (i.e., He is in charge).
 
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NewLifeInChristJesus

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The foot notes in the modern translations are there to show that they do not belong in the Word and have been added. This is a false claim, the footnotes in the Traditional Bibles are to show that words and phrases have been omitted.

The crux of the matter is, you going to waste time studying Bibles which do not contain all of the Word (Luk 4:4); Only versions from the Majority Text are plenary-inspired. appreciate your reply!
I think we have discussed this in detail before, but to summarize my beliefs, the authors of the various books of the Bible were inspired by God to write what they wrote. Unfortunately, we do not have any of those writings today except perhaps one fragment. All we have are copies of copies of copies, most of them hand written.

Your contention that the Majority Text contains all of the inspired words written by the original authors and no words that were not written by them is simply untennable.
 
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PrincetonGuy

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Only among published textual critics who are members of Western churches (especially your remark about the KJV) such as Anglicans, Roman Catholics, Lutherans, Presbyterians, et cetera.

Among the Eastern and Oriental Orthodox, those 300 million Eastern Christians who routinely get martyred but whose input is usually ignored by textual scholars despite being the churches that actually still use the Greek and Syriac languages, among others, there is a strong preference for the Byzantine text type not directly linked to the KJV (in the diaspora, the Eastern Orthodox prefer the KJV, but only for the New Testament, since its OT is based on the Masoretic, and not the LXX, but the Oriental Orthodox do not, desiring newer translations that are easier to read). But in their original languages the Greeks prefer the manuscripts carefully curated over the centuries by their church, which are mostly Byzantine, with the noted exception of the Codex Sinaiticus, which was stolen, a point we shall get to momentarily, and the Syriac Orthodox prefer the Western Peshitto (with the missing NT chapters 2 John, 3 John, Jude, 2 Peter and the Apocalypse) supplied from the 6th century translation of Mor Thomas of Harqel).

There is an important moral issue here:, if we look at the actual churches of Alexandria, Greek Orthodox and Coptic Orthodox, and if we look at the monastery where Codex Sinaiticus was kept until a Belgian adventurer stole it in the 19th century (to this date the fact that the British still have not returned to St. Catharine’s monastery their half to the monastery is a scandal on a par with the continued retention of the Elgin Marbles, the Star of Africa diamond and certain other objects essentially looted by the British Empire; luckily for them the Greek Orthodox monks are less likely than for example the governments of various regimes to try to prosecute UK institutions like the British Museum for receiving stolen property, which is absolutely what happened in the case of Codex Sinaiticus, but this raises an interesting question -

In what respect is it moral for Western Bible publishers to base their texts on what amounts to a looted manuscript? Now, granted, had the manuscript not been stolen, we know that the monks at St. Catharine’s would not have denied them access to write a copy - the theft occurred while the Belgian adventurer who expropriated it was supposedly doing just that, but I would argue that profiting from the Codex Sinaiticus has now become morally dubious, and at the very least, Zondervan and other publishers of Bibles that reference Sinaiticus ought to be making very significant monetary donations to St. Catharine’s Monastery in Sinai, for example, to fund an expension of the monastery’s clinic that provides health services to the lcoal Bedouin tribes (thus ensuring the monastery’s continued safe existence, for in the central part of Sinai, it is the only Christian church in a large radius; also a small number of the Bedouins are Christian, most are not, but the monks remain on good terms with nearly all of them through monastic hospitality).

+

That being said for my part, as a member of the Eastern church I don’t have a problem with the Alexandrian text type, provided its not used exclusively, although really, the great opportunity that’s being missed here is with the Western Text Type. The fact most textual critics continue to ignore it is nothing short of a travesty, in my opinion - we have here a version that is both different from A and B, yet also was in sufficiently diverse use to be the basis for what are literally the two oldest surviving translations of the New Testament or the most important portion thereof into another language, the Vetus Latina and Vetus Syra. And yet how many English language BIbles do we have translated exclusively from the Western text type? I think one incomplete translation based only on Vetus Latina…
How does any of this information change scribal emendations into Scripture?
 
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The Liturgist

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How does any of this information change scribal emendations into Scripture?

What of them?

The Western Text Type, which has second century provenance, disagrees with the Alexandrian Text Tyoe and with the Byzantine, and aside from a few cases of known interpolations, which I would argue should not be removed under any circumstances, given their immense historical value to the Christian faith, for example, the adultery pericopde from the Gospel According to John, the Longer Ending of Mark, or the Comma Johanneum, which is a useful gloss that helps clarify for the less well catechized what is clearly a Trinitarian reference by St. John the Theologian, well, we simply lack clear proof in most cases of supposed embellishment of the original text, since we have three competing Greek manuscript traditions, in addition to multiple translations dependent exclusively upon two of those, the Western and Byzantine text type.

Speaking of emendations, Codex Sinaiticus features the Epistle of Barnabas, which is almost universally regarded as psuedepigrapha influenced by an extreme form of Alexandrian typological/allegorical exegesis. Also it has much of the Shepherd of Hermas, which St. Athanasius and other early church fathers regarded as a useful catechetical text, but not as canonical material worthy of being read in church (indeed the 39th Paschal Encylical of St. Athanasius, where we first see the 27 book canon we know and love definitively presented with the authority of a patriarch of one of the five major Apostolic sees of the early church, arguably the most important such patriarchate of the fourth and early fifth centuries, that of the Pope of Alexandria - permits the former use of the Shepherd while proscribing it from being read in Church). Codex Alexandrinus features 2 Clement - regarded as spurious. And Codex Vaticanus is missing several canonical books, with many believing these were ripped out along with apocrypha, as definitely happened at some point to Alexandrinus.
 
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WordSword

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Your contention that the Majority Text contains all of the inspired words written by the original authors and no words that were not written by them is simply untennable.
It's my understanding is that only versions that retain the entire Word are from the Majority, Traditional, Byzantine texts. If one compares the modern versions with the Traditional versions you will find numerous omissions, transpositions and interpolations. We must be aware of the fact that the manuscripts used for Traditional versions go back as far as the original autografts. God maintained the Traditional copies from the beginning until now.

Translations aren't perfect, but God's Word within correct translation are!
 
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JSRG

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The foot notes in the modern translations are there to show that they do not belong in the Word and have been added. This is a false claim, the footnotes in the Traditional Bibles are to show that words and phrases have been omitted.

The crux of the matter is, you going to waste time studying Bibles which do not contain all of the Word (Luk 4:4); Only versions from the Majority Text are plenary-inspired. appreciate your reply!
If you are trying to push forward the Majority Text (you do say "only versions from the Majority Text are plenary-inspired") over the Critical Text that is used in almost all modern Bible translations, then your list at the start of what you claim are the "Totally Omitted Passages" and "Partially Omitted, Transposed or Interpolated Passages" doesn't make sense, because it gives examples where there is no difference between them.

The obvious one is how 1 John 5:7 is listed under "Totally Omitted Passages" and 1 John 5:7-8 is listed under "Partially Omitted, Transposed, or Interpolated Passages". To list it as both totally and partially omitted seems a bit odd, but in any event we run into something: The Robinson-Pierpoint text (Majority Text) and Nesle-Alend (Critical Text) do not appear to have any differences in these verses, and they are identical. So it doesn't make sense to cite this as a divergence from the Majority Text.

Again, you go into no detail about what is omitted or transposed or interpolated in your list, so I can't be absolutely certain, but I expect this is about the Comma Johanneum, or the Johannine Comma. Specifically, it's the underlined portion (text from the KJV):

"For there are three that beare record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. And there are three that beare witnesse in earth, the Spirit, and the Water, and the Blood, and these three agree in one."

This underlined portion is in the KJV but not modern Bible translations--it's not in the Critical Text, after all. But if this was what was in mind, we run into a problem: The underlined text isn't in the Majority Text either. Which makes sense, because it's decidedly not a majority reading in the Greek: It's in a very small minority of Greek manuscripts, and none of the few manuscripts that have it are from prior to the 14th century (and a number of the few that do have it don't even have it in the main text, but as a marginal note). Although it is only found in a small minority of manuscripts, this reading is found in the King James Version, because it's translated from the Textus Receptus, a 16th-century text largely put together by Erasmus (a 16th century Catholic priest) who based it on only a few manuscripts and thus it includes various obscure readings that are in agreement with neither the Majority Text nor Critical Text (or in the case of the last few verses of Revelation, readings that you can't find even a single Greek manuscript to support, because Erasmus lacked the Greek of the last few verses and just did a translation into Greek from a Latin manuscript for them).

But if this is what is in mind--it going against the Textus Receptus/King James Version--then the list of verses you provided is not a comparison of the Majority Text with modern Critical Text-based translations, but is rather just trying to compare the Textus Receptus with later translations. But the Textus Receptus is not the Majority Text. It does often match up with the Majority Text, but it isn't... as discussed, on various occasions the Textus Receptus goes with readings that are found in only a small minority of Greek manuscripts or even readings found in zero Greek manuscripts.
 
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NewLifeInChristJesus

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We must be aware of the fact that the manuscripts used for Traditional versions go back as far as the original autografts.
Here is a picture of a fragment from John's gospel that is the oldest copy of any New Testament writing that we have in our possession today (front and back). Information on this fragment can be found here. It dates to 125-160 AD. This is as close in time as we get to the original writings.

1768574839848.png
1768574886784.png
 
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WordSword

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Here is a picture of a fragment from John's gospel that is the oldest copy of any New Testament writing that we have in our possession today (front and back). Information on this fragment can be found here. It dates to 125-160 AD. This is as close in time as we get to the original writings.
Evidentially there were enough manuscript copies for the King James to include it, because it's not italicized by the KJV translators. As you may know these translators italicize words that are not in the manuscript copies.

A good example is 2Sam 21:19: "And there was again a battle in Gob with the Philistines, where Elhanan the son of Jaareoregim, a Bethlehemite, slew the brother of Goliath the Gittite, the staff of whose spear was like a weaver's beam."

No Hebrew manuscripts contain "the brother of" thus omitting explanatory words renders the reading an error. This actual incident is reiterated in 1Chro 20:5, with no italics.
 
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NewLifeInChristJesus

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Evidentially there were enough manuscript copies for the King James to include it, because it's not italicized by the KJV translators. As you may know these translators italicize words that are not in the manuscript copies.

A good example is 2Sam 21:19: "And there was again a battle in Gob with the Philistines, where Elhanan the son of Jaareoregim, a Bethlehemite, slew the brother of Goliath the Gittite, the staff of whose spear was like a weaver's beam."

No Hebrew manuscripts contain "the brother of" thus omitting explanatory words renders the reading an error. This actual incident is reiterated in 1Chro 20:5, with no italics.
Are you replying to me by mistake? Sounds more like an answer to JSRG's post.
 
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JSRG

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Evidentially there were enough manuscript copies for the King James to include it, because it's not italicized by the KJV translators. As you may know these translators italicize words that are not in the manuscript copies.

This is dodging the point. You were holding up how the Majority Text should be followed. But your examples don't make sense with that, with the Johannine Comma being an especially blatant example. Of the Greek texts that have the applicable verses, I believe less than 2% of them include the Comma, and there are zero that do prior to the 14th century. And about half of the few that do have the Comma don't even have it in the main text, but as a scribal gloss. This is why the Majority Text doesn't have it, because it's in such a minority of manuscripts.

As for the issue of italics, you also appear to be getting several things confused. When things were italicized in the KJV (these italics are frustratingly displayed as regular text on Bible Gateway, though they are retained on other sites like Bible Hub), it wasn't about what was or wasn't in the manuscripts, but what was or wasn't in the text they were translating from. The New Testament was translated from the Received Text, which was not a manuscript, but put together by Erasmus, who looked at only a few manuscripts. Erasmus was not out to make a Majority Text; he didn't have access to anywhere near enough manuscripts to make such a decision. Thus it ended up with various readings found in either a small minority of manuscripts or readings found in zero manuscripts at all. Those readings were not marked off with italics in the KJV because they were in the Received Text, which was the basis of the translation. Italics just says it wasn't in the Received Text for the New Testament, or the Masoretic Text for the Old Testament. These italics usually were done to compensate for grammatical differences, as English will sometimes require words that aren't found in the Hebrew or Greek to be grammatical or comprehensible. But they again aren't about manuscripts.

So I feel all of this is really just dodging the point. Whatever the opinion of someone in the 16th century with limited manuscript access might have been about whether there was support for a reading, it would clearly be of little relevance to the question of the Majority Text given their limited manuscript access and the fact they weren't really out to make a Majority Text to begin with. None of this changes the fact that you're giving inaccurate examples because the things you claim are omissions are things weren't in the Majority Text.

A good example is 2Sam 21:19: "And there was again a battle in Gob with the Philistines, where Elhanan the son of Jaareoregim, a Bethlehemite, slew the brother of Goliath the Gittite, the staff of whose spear was like a weaver's beam."

No Hebrew manuscripts contain "the brother of" thus omitting explanatory words renders the reading an error. This actual incident is reiterated in 1Chro 20:5, with no italics.
Well, the Old Testament wasn't translated from the Received Text, but the Masoretic Text (which is used as the basis for the Old Testament translation in most English bibles). The Received Text was of the New Testament, while the Masoretic Text was the Old Testament. The Masoretic Text was a Hebrew text compiled by the Masoretes, a group of Jewish scholars, in the second half of the first millennium AD.

Regardless, it is an example of them adding italics to show something not in the text they were translating from. But again, this was not on the basis of manuscripts, but on the text itself they were working with.
 
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ARBITER01

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This threat isn’t specifically about the KJV but rather about the question of the Majority Text vs. the ”Minority Text” (which I suppose is no longer the minority since the majority of recent Bible translations lean heavily into the Alexandrian text type; while sadly the fascinating Western text type used in the second century Vetus Latina, the original Latin translation of the New Testament (and of the Septuagint) and the Vetus Syra, the first Syriac translation of the four canonical Gospels as such (not counting the Diatessaron, a Gospel harmony composed by Tatian, who later became the leader of a heretical cult related to the Severians and other Syrian docetic-emanationist heretical sects).

I would love to have a critical text of the Old Latin text,... one that I can read also.

I would also note that the Majority Text, as a broad category including the Byzantine text type and certain ancient translations from it such as the Peshitta, the Vulgate, various ancient Coptic, Georgian and Ge’ez New Testaments, and the traditional Church Slavonic Bible translated by Saints Cyril and Methodius, is not something accessible in English only via the KJV or NKJV; there are many other English language translations that are based upon it, such as the Geneva BIble, the Bishops’ Bible, various translations of translations, such as the Etheridge and Murdock translations of the Peshitta and the Challoner Douai-Rheims, and some of the more recent translations.

KJV-onlyism is no longer a thing on ChristianForums thankfully, and those of us who like the Byzantine Text Type or are members of churches that primarily use the Byzantine Text Type for liturgical purposes, which include among others all Eastern Orthodox and Oriental Orthodox churches, would resent a view that seeks to associate our preferred text type with the KJV in all cases.

Now I personally love the KJV; it is not my favorite English Bible but it’s easily in the no. 2 or no. 3 position. The NKJV I am a bit less thrilled with.

I don't really care for the KJV-onlyism stance, nor do I care for the Critical text-only stance either.

I view the Received Text as the more complete Byzantine text, hence why I like it. The Greek suffered at the hands of rogue men years ago, but GOD provided more than just one witness, with the different translations and Patriarchal texts that survived.
 
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JSRG

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Having said the above, I shall also say that the very large majority of supporters of the Majority Text are also supporters of the Byzantine text-type and the King James Version. Moreover, the arguments for the KJV are essentially the same as those used for the Majority Text.

I meant to respond to this earlier. I have to disagree with the claim that "the arguments for the KJV are essentially the same as those used for the Majority Text". You'll certainly find KJV advocates using some of the kinds of arguments that are used for the Majority Text because there's definitely some merit to them, but a KJV advocate can't use identical arguments because they have to abandon the Majority Text to defend various KJV readings due to them being in a minority, and then embrace different (and anti-Majority Text) arguments to defend those minority readings.

I supppose it does depend on what you mean by "arguments for the KJV" though. If someone's position is that while the Received Text--which the KJV is translated from--is flawed and the Majority Text is better, they could say that the Received Text is still better than the Critical Text because it I believe matches up better with the Majority Text than the Critical Text does, and then argue for the KJV on that basis ("not as good as it could be, but better than modern translations"). Though that does bring in questions like why not to use something like the NKJV that, while translated from the Received Text in the main text, does include footnotes on what the Majority Text readings are in footnotes, or why to not use the World English Bible which actually is translated from the Majority Text (rather surprisingly to me, I believe it's the only English translation done from the Majority Text). But if we're talking about someone actually defending all of the readings of the KJV, then arguments for the Majority Text won't work.
 
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JSRG

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I would love to have a critical text of the Old Latin text,... one that I can read also.

I'm not sure what you mean by "one that I can read also"--are you referring to one that has been translated into English, or just one that is available?

I can't help on the translation front, but in terms of stuff easily and freely available, I think this is the best you get:
Bibliorum Sacrorum latinae versiones antiguae : seu, Vetus italica, et caeterae quaecunque in codicibus mss. & antiquorum libris reperiri potuerunt : quae cum Vulgata latina, & cum textu graeco comparantur ... Operâ & studio ... Petri Sabatier .. : Sabatier, Pierre, 1682-1742 : Free Download, Borrow, and Streaming : Internet Archive (Genesis through Job)
Bibliorum Sacrorum latinae versiones antiguae : seu, Vetus italica, et caeterae quaecunque in codicibus mss. & antiquorum libris reperiri potuerunt : quae cum Vulgata latina, & cum textu graeco comparantur ... Operâ & studio ... Petri Sabatier .. : Sabatier, Pierre, 1682-1742 : Free Download, Borrow, and Streaming : Internet Archive (Psalms through 2 Maccabees)
Bibliorum Sacrorum Latinae Antiquae V 3 : Petri Sabatier : Free Download, Borrow, and Streaming : Internet Archive (New Testament)

The problem with these is they're from the 18th century, so obviously this is going to be out of date. In terms of more modern critical editions, I don't think there's anywhere that has them all together, but this offers some information about where to find some:
 
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WordSword

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This is dodging the point. You were holding up how the Majority Text should be followed. But your examples don't make sense with that, with the Johannine Comma being an especially blatant example. Of the Greek texts that have the applicable verses, I believe less than 2% of them include the Comma, and there are zero that do prior to the 14th century. And about half of the few that do have the Comma don't even have it in the main text, but as a scribal gloss. This is why the Majority Text doesn't have it, because it's in such a minority of manuscripts.

As for the issue of italics, you also appear to be getting several things confused. When things were italicized in the KJV (these italics are frustratingly displayed as regular text on Bible Gateway, though they are retained on other sites like Bible Hub), it wasn't about what was or wasn't in the manuscripts, but what was or wasn't in the text they were translating from. The New Testament was translated from the Received Text, which was not a manuscript, but put together by Erasmus, who looked at only a few manuscripts. Erasmus was not out to make a Majority Text; he didn't have access to anywhere near enough manuscripts to make such a decision. Thus it ended up with various readings found in either a small minority of manuscripts or readings found in zero manuscripts at all. Those readings were not marked off with italics in the KJV because they were in the Received Text, which was the basis of the translation. Italics just says it wasn't in the Received Text for the New Testament, or the Masoretic Text for the Old Testament. These italics usually were done to compensate for grammatical differences, as English will sometimes require words that aren't found in the Hebrew or Greek to be grammatical or comprehensible. But they again aren't about manuscripts.

So I feel all of this is really just dodging the point. Whatever the opinion of someone in the 16th century with limited manuscript access might have been about whether there was support for a reading, it would clearly be of little relevance to the question of the Majority Text given their limited manuscript access and the fact they weren't really out to make a Majority Text to begin with. None of this changes the fact that you're giving inaccurate examples because the things you claim are omissions are things weren't in the Majority Text.


Well, the Old Testament wasn't translated from the Received Text, but the Masoretic Text (which is used as the basis for the Old Testament translation in most English bibles). The Received Text was of the New Testament, while the Masoretic Text was the Old Testament. The Masoretic Text was a Hebrew text compiled by the Masoretes, a group of Jewish scholars, in the second half of the first millennium AD.

Regardless, it is an example of them adding italics to show something not in the text they were translating from. But again, this was not on the basis of manuscripts, but on the text itself they were working with.
The Received Text (Textus Receptus) is quite similar to the Majority Text (MT) and the Byzantine Text (BT), as they all share a common textual tradition. - Wikipedia puritanboard.com

Concerning the OT reference, it was an example of the KJV italicizing absent scripture. They are the most consistent users of italicizing! BTW, I would never desire a Bible (to each his own) that prints that Error in 2Sam 21:19. The NIV had it that way up until recent:

The New International Version (NIV) changed the translation of 2 Samuel 21:19—which previously stated that Elhanan killed Goliath (1984 edition) to stating that he killed the brother of Goliath—in the 2011 revision.
  • NIV 1984: "...Elhanan son of Jaare-Oregim the Bethlehemite killed Goliath the Gittite...".
  • NIV 2011: "...Elhanan son of Jair the Bethlehemite killed the brother of Goliath the Gittite...". -Google AI
 
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The Liturgist

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The New International Version (NIV) changed the translation of 2 Samuel 21:19—which previously stated that Elhanan killed Goliath (1984 edition) to stating that he killed the brother of Goliath—in the 2011 revision.
  • NIV 1984: "...Elhanan son of Jaare-Oregim the Bethlehemite killed Goliath the Gittite...".
  • NIV 2011: "...Elhanan son of Jair the Bethlehemite killed the brother of Goliath the Gittite...". -Google AI

Seems like a minor error to me, not on a par with say the modification of John 1:1 by the NWT.
 
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ARBITER01

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I'm not sure what you mean by "one that I can read also"--are you referring to one that has been translated into English, or just one that is available?

I can't help on the translation front, but in terms of stuff easily and freely available, I think this is the best you get:
Bibliorum Sacrorum latinae versiones antiguae : seu, Vetus italica, et caeterae quaecunque in codicibus mss. & antiquorum libris reperiri potuerunt : quae cum Vulgata latina, & cum textu graeco comparantur ... Operâ & studio ... Petri Sabatier .. : Sabatier, Pierre, 1682-1742 : Free Download, Borrow, and Streaming : Internet Archive (Genesis through Job)
Bibliorum Sacrorum latinae versiones antiguae : seu, Vetus italica, et caeterae quaecunque in codicibus mss. & antiquorum libris reperiri potuerunt : quae cum Vulgata latina, & cum textu graeco comparantur ... Operâ & studio ... Petri Sabatier .. : Sabatier, Pierre, 1682-1742 : Free Download, Borrow, and Streaming : Internet Archive (Psalms through 2 Maccabees)
Bibliorum Sacrorum Latinae Antiquae V 3 : Petri Sabatier : Free Download, Borrow, and Streaming : Internet Archive (New Testament)

The problem with these is they're from the 18th century, so obviously this is going to be out of date. In terms of more modern critical editions, I don't think there's anywhere that has them all together, but this offers some information about where to find some:

Yea, I'd like to have something more recent, but I'm not sure if anybody in that camp has produced anything similar to what Sabatier had worked on.

The Old Latin is an amazing witness, and we should have updated scholarship on it also instead of just the Greek.
 
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PrincetonGuy

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The Received Text (Textus Receptus) is quite similar to the Majority Text (MT) and the Byzantine Text (BT), as they all share a common textual tradition. - Wikipedia puritanboard.com

Concerning the OT reference, it was an example of the KJV italicizing absent scripture. They are the most consistent users of italicizing! BTW, I would never desire a Bible (to each his own) that prints that Error in 2Sam 21:19. The NIV had it that way up until recent:

The New International Version (NIV) changed the translation of 2 Samuel 21:19—which previously stated that Elhanan killed Goliath (1984 edition) to stating that he killed the brother of Goliath—in the 2011 revision.
  • NIV 1984: "...Elhanan son of Jaare-Oregim the Bethlehemite killed Goliath the Gittite...".
  • NIV 2011: "...Elhanan son of Jair the Bethlehemite killed the brother of Goliath the Gittite...". -Google AI
The text of 2 Sam. 21:19 has been badly corrupted. Compare 1 Chronicles 20:4-8,

1 Chronicles 20:4. After this, war broke out with the Philistines at Gezer; then Sibbecai the Hushathite killed Sippai, who was one of the descendants of the giants; and the Philistines were subdued.
5. Again there was war with the Philistines; and Elhanan son of Jair killed Lahmi the brother of Goliath the Gittite, the shaft of whose spear was like a weaver's beam.
6. Again there was war at Gath, where there was a man of great size, who had six fingers on each hand, and six toes on each foot, twenty-four in number; he also was descended from the giants.
7. When he taunted Israel, Jonathan son of Shimea, David's brother, killed him.
8. These were descended from the giants in Gath; they fell by the hand of David and his servants. (NRSV)

Compare also the Targum of 2 Sam. 21:19,

“David, the son of Jesse, a pious man, who rose at midnight to sing praises to God, slew Lachmi, the brother of Goliath, the same day on which he slew Goliath the Gittite, whose spear-staff was like a weaver’s beam.”
 
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