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There is no biblical text or evidence that says fallen angels came in human form either. On the contrary, we are told to be kind to strangers for some have entertained angels unaware. The appearance of angels in Scripture is always a result of God sending them, and even though they appeared human to serve the purpose, they were not human. The argument that was given by another poster that they ate our food etc. is invalid. Jesus also ate our food in his glorified body after the resurrection.But to your point, I do hold that the biblical text does give one sufficient evidence to stop and think...did some fallen angles come in physical form? (but there is no biblical evidence that angels can or did procreate with human women).
Yes I know. That is why I said it was a quote from 1 Enoch that Jude's readers would have been familiar with. I have been in discussions on other forums where the poster claims that Moses, in Gen 6, got his information from Enoch the seventh from Adam, and therefore that authenticated it. The author(s) of the work are the ones that believed Gen 6 was speaking of fallen angels. I did a series of posts on the material found in the Quorum caves (and those writings of 1 Enoch and others, were copies, not the originals. I will let you take a wild guess as to whether or not providing the comprehensive historical background change the person's mind.(1) The book of Enoch as we know it was not written by Enoch.
(2) The evidence tells us that the book of Enoch was written during the Intertestamental period by multiple unknown authors.
(3) The book of Enoch is a written record of the oral history of the Hebrews mixed with corrupted cultural beliefs of surrounding people groups that made its way into the Hebrew culture.
One would have to look at 1 Enoch itself. It is uncertain whether v.. 6 is a direct quote but vs 14-15 are.With that cursory overview above, there is no definitive evidence that I know of that would suggest that anyone knows to which source Jude was referring. It could have most certainly been (A) the book of Enoch that most every Hebrew knew in that time (I say in that time because it was put to paper during the Intertestamental period). But it could have just as likely been (B) the oral history and traditions that were orally handed down (common in Hebrew culture) every Hebrew knew. OR, it could have also simply been divine inspiration from God which the book of Enoch and the Oral tradition had correct (on the particular issue that Jude attests only). The main point here is Jude does not tell us of which source he draws his assertion.
I agree and have also said the same.In other words, Jude, when stating that the angels “kept not their first estate”, is telling the reader that these fallen angels abandoned their original responsibility of authority that had been assigned by God. However, the second offense is not the same as the first.
In other words, in this second offense these angels left their own residence, habitation, or proper dwelling. This offense is not identical to the other offense found in Jude 1:6 of not keeping one’s post, or domain, or position of authority. The angels in this second offense have left where they normally live (there home). The normal home, dwelling, where angels live is in heaven (whether it be the 3rd heaven or 2nd or 1st). It is not "on earth". So Jude appears to be telling us that these angels left their heavenly state or home and came to earth (not their home).
It refers to people. Something to always try to keep in mind though about people in the scriptures is that all have sin and sin is of the devil, so people in scripture (or reality) are never just people.Greetings to you BelieveItOarKnot. I hope your week has been a good one.
I agree here. Do you have an opinion on the OP which asks which subject group the ending phrase, "These were the mighty men who were of old, the men of renown", refers? Subject group #1 or #4? Or do you think #1 and #4 are the same group?
A reasonable conclusion. Technically there are only 3 parties disclosed in scripture. God, people and devils.I agree that the ḇə-nê-hā-’ĕ-lō-hîm ("sons of God") in Genesis 6:4 are humans (based on context).
Adam was a son of God. Do the math from there on who the "sons of God" were and are. Luke 3:38However, the idiom 'sons of...' denotes belonging, affiliation, favor, and representation in the Bible.
Well, that's a nice add on. Since we all technically came from God some sort or portion of us were present prior to. Another interesting observation to add to the mix. And we did not exist as people.In other words, in this case the subject matter of the idiom is a representative of God; for they are "sons of God". This seems very clear in the Job verses.
Don't know why excluding any people are necessary. We do have a bad actor and his own in the midst of people who is not a person or people to observe when it comes to evil and sin, and that is our adversary and his messengers.So if it is the case that the Job verses should be our guide. Then the reference in Genesis 6 to ḇə-nê-hā-’ĕ-lō-hîm ("sons of God") is in reference to good humans, of God. In no instance do I think evil humans should be considered.
Likewise. Pleasure.Peace to you brother
I am trying to make sure we both understand each others position before I make any presentations. My first point of confusion is that in your last post you copied my above quote that basically says that Jude gives two conditions for which these angels were put in everlasting chains. In response to this quote you wrote...In other words, Jude, when stating that the angels “kept not their first estate”, is telling the reader that these fallen angels abandoned their original responsibility of authority that had been assigned by God. However, the second offense is not the same as the first.
So I took this to mean that you agree that Jude gives two conditions for which these angels were chained.I agree and have also said the same.
Now to your point that you think there is no biblical evidence, we will stick with biblical only, that fallen angels came in human form either. Let me present a start (remember, we agree that sons of God in Genesis 6:2,4 are humans and also agree that angels cannot procreate with human women).There is no biblical text or evidence that says fallen angels came in human form either.
I don't think it is two conditions. I don't think "domain" and "habitation/dwelling" is necessarily two conditions. They dwelt in their domain. Therefore, when I read you presentation of "domain" I was seeing it as presentation of "dwelling". Whcih is why I referred you back to post 36 when I realized you were distinguishing between the two. I was a bit rushed. Sorry.So I took this to mean that you agree that Jude gives two conditions for which these angels were chained.
But when I go back and refer to your post #36 to another poster (in which you referred me). I see you cleary, at least clear to me, start defining the second condition but then you don't seem to go into what this second conditions means in the practical sense. So
A very common position to hold is that "demons" in the Bible are in fact fallen angels (I agree with this). But the problem with this position is how are these "demons" fallen angels if the fallen angels are chained (per a particular reading of Jude and Peter)? The only two reasonable, and biblical, answers for this are these...
(1) The chaining is a "restriction" and not a "total confinement". Therefore the Jude verses are basically only expressing one condition of offense and all those fallen angels were restricted by chains but can still present as evil spirits or demons.
(2) The chaining was a "total confinement" but not all fallen angels were chained (this is my view). This means that some fallen angels were chained and others were not. The chained ones are totally confined, hence why demons don't want to go there. The ones that are not chained are the ones that present as evil spirits and demons.
The problem with option #1 is that there isn't much for one to be confident it is true. It assumes and speculates on to many things, imo. The second however, has more of a trail of clues that is convincing. The main question for #2 is why are there some chained and not others? The answer to that might be found in Jude 1:6. All the fallen angels violated condition #1 but only some of the fallen angels violated condition #2. Hence why some are chained and some not.
let me present a very short definition of both conditions that we can agree or disagree on.
It does not seem that way to me, though I see how it could. In any case, would it matter since they were locked up in chains? There are no scriptures saying they were ever on the earth in human form. Only obedient angels are show appearing in human form on earth. And really there is no scripture that I can think of that says angels' habitation is only heaven. They are invisible to the human eye because they are spirit beings, but they are there where needed.So Jude seems to be saying that these angels were chained because they (1) left their position of authority, AND (2) left where they live by their nature (they live in heaven by nature).
I used to just accept that demons were fallen angels. If they aren't it leaves open the question of, what are they then and where did they come from. But there is more about the spiritual realm that we are not given than there is of what we are given. The secret things belong to God, so I don't speculate where I cannot go. The Bible does not explicitly say demons are fallen angels and I don't think it says enough to blindly think it is implied or inferred. It explicitly says they exist.Evidence to work through
(A) The Bible affirms that there is in fact "demons".
A very common position to hold is that "demons" in the Bible are in fact fallen angels (I agree with this). But the problem with this position is how are these "demons" fallen angels if the fallen angels are chained (per a particular reading of Jude and Peter)? The only two reasonable, and biblical, answers for this are these...
(1) The chaining is a "restriction" and not a "total confinement". Therefore the Jude verses are basically only expressing one condition of offense and all those fallen angels were restricted by chains but can still present as evil spirits or demons.
(2) The chaining was a "total confinement" but not all fallen angels were chained (this is my view). This means that some fallen angels were chained and others were not. The chained ones are totally confined, hence why demons don't want to go there. The ones that are not chained are the ones that present as evil spirits and demons.
The problem with option #1 is that there isn't much for one to be confident it is true. It assumes and speculates on to many things, imo. The second however, has more of a trail of clues that is convincing. The main question for #2 is why are there some chained and not others? The answer to that might be found in Jude 1:6. All the fallen angels violated condition #1 but only some of the fallen angels violated condition #2. Hence why some are chained and some not.
I don't recall angels having physical intercourse anywhere in the Bible nor do any of your citingsIt specifically mentioned the angels. But I forgot, context doesn't matter to you.
I know this is a very difficult matter for you to grasp, but you should be able to reconnoiter that devils inhabit the flesh of people by way of adverse spiritual influences and sinful/lawless thoughts. These actions do not and never have equated to "them" having sexual relationships and bearing half breed offspring.Meaning just as Sodom and Gomorrah, they gave them selves over to fornication going after strange flesh.
The term "angel" means "messenger." It can apply to holy messengers, wicked messengers, people and God.It's been noted more than a few times in the OT that the sons of God can be angels.
Because it is dramatic and "interesting" and distracting from doing the real work of pursuing knowing God and the hard work of actual study of the Bible itself growth in Christ? It would make a great movie! full of action and intrigue. And in fact, that has been done in principle more than once.None of that means holy or wicked spirits have sexual relations with people. I honestly don't know how people buy into these types of teachings myself. Without a stitch of evidence no less.
There are some very respectable scholars that think the same. Maybe through a different path, but ultimately the same.I don't think it is two conditions.
I would encourage you to study the use of the term "dominion" within the biblical text and how it is used as authority, rule or stewardship. As three quick examples, Genesis 1:26 "...let them have dominion over the fish of the sea,". This "dominion" in Gen 1:26 is used as having rule or power or authority over it.I don't think "domain" and "habitation/dwelling" is necessarily two conditions. They dwelt in their domain. Therefore, when I read you presentation of "domain" I was seeing it as presentation of "dwelling". Whcih is why I referred you back to post 36 when I realized you were distinguishing between the two. I was a bit rushed. Sorry.
So you concede that angels can appear in human form on earth (per biblical text)? But you are saying that the biblical text only records obedient angels as doing such, i.e, messengers of God. I would agree....with the excepting of Jude 1:6.Only obedient angels are show appearing in human form on earth.
Consider Mark 12:25, "For when they rise from the dead, they neither marry nor are given in marriage, but are like angels in heaven."And really there is no scripture that I can think of that says angels' habitation is only heaven.
I'm curious how you came to the conclusion that they are invisible to the human eye. However, to you point. Angles are invisible to the human eye because they are in a spiritual realm, i.e., heaven. Consider this...They are invisible to the human eye because they are spirit beings, but they are there where needed.
I think that they are. I could write an essay about this.I used to just accept that demons were fallen angels.
See above. I don't think one needs to speculate or wonder. God gives us sufficient clues to have a general idea of who these spirits and demons are (without looking to outside text). The Holy Scripture doesn't go into great detail, but why would one think God would give recognition to the fallen. In other words, the Bible doesn't go into a lot of detail for a reason, imo. But, again imo, it does give us clues so that we might be informed enough to deny any exaggerated claims.If they aren't it leaves open the question of, what are they then and where did they come from. But there is more about the spiritual realm that we are not given than there is of what we are given. The secret things belong to God, so I don't speculate where I cannot go. The Bible does not explicitly say demons are fallen angels and I don't think it says enough to blindly think it is implied or inferred. It explicitly says they exist.
The term sons of God is listed in the OT around 5 times whereas sons of men/son of man is listed many times to denote humanity. There is a difference.I don't recall angels having physical intercourse anywhere in the Bible
I'm not going down this road again with you where no one is responsible for their own sin and everyone is ultimately saved but the devils. That's not biblical. I've read the back of the book. The devils are not standing in Judgement for us, we are. They are not written in the book of life. So that's not written about them. And you talk about no evidence? At least I base my beliefs on what's written.I know this is a very difficult matter for you to grasp, but you should be able to reconnoiter that devils inhabit the flesh of people by way of adverse spiritual influences and sinful/lawless thoughts.
I understand that. What I am saying is that they inhabit that domain and not another domain. They left the domain they were given to inhabit (dwell in). Scripture shows us that holy angels are often sent to earth. And only those God sends to do so. Now, I suppose a case could be made, at least in theory, that the fallen angels came to earth without God's permission and to take up residence. But that would presume that they are autonomous and can do as they please.The term "domain" focuses on the specific place or area that one rules over while the word "dominion" focuses on the power over that specific place. Both terms are interrelated.
That is only true if "dwelling" and "domain" are interpreted as two distinct things instead of their dwelling place is where they are given dominion. It is purely interpretive. Do you interpret Rev 12:9 literally? If so then you contradict your own interpretation of Jude 1:6.So you concede that angels can appear in human form on earth (per biblical text)? But you are saying that the biblical text only records obedient angels as doing such, i.e, messengers of God. I would agree....with the excepting of Jude 1:6.![]()
Sure. But there is no evidence of that in Scripture. An interpretive view of Jude 1:6 does not suffice as evidence when no actual evidence is given.Which would lead to the reasonable conclusion that any angel appearing in physical form on earth, if it were to be the case, without being directed by God would be in defiance of God.
God created earth and all that is in it for humans, as our home, not the home of angels, that is true. Jesus' point was not where angels live however. The fact that earth is not their home, but is ours, does not mean they are not allowed to come to earth. Scripture shows us God sends them here frequently. And we really have no reason to believe they are not always here.Consider Mark 12:25, "For when they rise from the dead, they neither marry nor are given in marriage, but are like angels in heaven."
Mark here in 12:25 basically says that when we rise from the dead we will be "like angels in heaven". He associates angels and heaven as being together. Now it has to be conceded that it does not explicitly say "angels live in heaven". But it seems to me to be reasonable evidence that angels, who are spiritual beings, live in heaven.
Because I can't see them anymore than I can see God, who is also spirit. See 2 Kings 6:17. The reason I cannot see them is not because they are in a spiritual realm (although that too) but because they are spirit beings.I'm curious how you came to the conclusion that they are invisible to the human eye. However, to you point. Angles are invisible to the human eye because they are in a spiritual realm, i.e., heaven. Consider this...
As far as I am concerned, that is irrelevant to this conversation. Your statement on it will suffice and I don't think will altar my response to what follows.(Evidence #1) God created three heavens (Heb 4:14, 2Cor 12:2). One of those heavens, the first heaven, is typically known by biblical scholars to be the immediate atmosphere surrounding the earth, i.e., the air (Gen 6:7, Isa 55:10, Matt 6:26). The third heaven in this concept is known to be the “heaven of heavens” (Deu 10:14, 1King 8:27), the abode of God.
So God created the earth, 1st heaven, 2nd heaven, 3rd heaven.
But wait. I thought you said they were locked up in chains for leaving heaven and coming to earth.(Evidence #2) Fallen angels were thrown to earth by Satan (Rev 12:4)
It seems reasonable from evidence #2 to think that one could then expect fallen angels to be on or around the earth, for they were thrown down to it.
This too becomes another discussion so I will deal with it separately in detail. I will just say here, that last I checked, Scripture declares the the earth belongs to God and all that is in it. That he is sovereign over it governs it. So the passages you present need to be exegetically dealt with so as not to be presenting a contradiction of this. Which I will do in a reply of its own.(Evidece #3) Satan is described as having dominion or power over the earth (John 5:19). He is the "god of this world" (John 12:31) and "ruler of this world". HOWEVER, Satan is also called the “prince of the power of the air” (Eph 2:2).
I can't deal with what is utterly speculation. You yourself concede it is only a "reasonable" conclusion. And it rests on what various scholars and what they have said. What they have said and who they are is not presented but what I have read of it myself is speculation and though I don't recall names they are people I once simply believed because they had been Christians longer than me (this was back when I was new some forty plus years ago). Since that time I have heard the same sources promote much unscriptural teaching. And I have never done my own study on it as I have not found it germaine to understanding anything in Scripture.So using this evidence, it is reasonable to conclude that fallen angels, in spiritual form and invisible to the eye, may be "on earth" because they are residing in the 1st heaven, or the "air", which Satan has dominion over (which btw is their proper dwelling, i.e., heaven). In other words, some fallen angels may have left their "domain" be were still able to keep their "own abode" by staying in the 1st heaven in which Satan has dominion...and thereby keep from being chained.
If God doesn't, why should we?The Holy Scripture doesn't go into great detail, but why would one think God would give recognition to the fallen. In other words, the Bible doesn't go into a lot of detail for a reason, imo. But, again imo, it does give us clues so that we might be informed enough to deny any exaggerated claims.
No offense because I know we have different beliefs on this and that's fine -but since you responded to a post directed at me I just wanted to say I don't think it's fair to generalize people you know nothing about because of those different beliefs. And implying no hard work is being done in actual bible study.Because it is dramatic and "interesting" and distracting from doing the real work of pursuing knowing God and the hard work of actual study of the Bible itself growth in Christ?
Yes, dime store novel stuff for sure. Sensationalism around the coffee table.Because it is dramatic and "interesting" and distracting from doing the real work of pursuing knowing God and the hard work of actual study of the Bible itself growth in Christ? It would make a great movie! full of action and intrigue. And in fact, that has been done in principle more than once.
People are God's children, blind as they are to the fact, church people included who think it's only them and no one else. Adam was God's son, Luke 3:38. Every son after, likewise has the same status. Matt. 23:9, Acts 17:28-29 and a generally accepted fact among orthodoxy in general.The term sons of God is listed in the OT around 5 times whereas sons of men/son of man is listed many times to denote humanity. There is a difference.
Another common misread. IF we are God's children (we are) then we existed in some form or fashion within God before our arrival here. Particulars notwithstanding. We don't have a lot of disclosure about it, other than we are God's children, placed under the elemental tutors of this present world until our appointed times arrive:Job 38:7 "When the morning stars sang together, and all the sons of God shouted for Joy?"
Humans were not here when God first laid the foundation for this earth. These morning stars and sons of God are angels.
You are merely led to not see the obvious culprit is all. Common form of voided sight. You'd rather blame your fellow mankind and not see the devils in the pictures who would seem to be the most obvious culprits in the scheme of things. The spirits of disobedience that are NOT people, but are located IN people. How many times did Jesus show us this in the Gospels? Thousands of times. 12,000 of them in a single person in one instance.where no one is responsible for their own sin
UnderstoodI understand that. What I am saying is that they inhabit that domain and not another domain. They left the domain they were given to inhabit (dwell in). Scripture shows us that holy angels are often sent to earth. And only those God sends to do so.
Autonomous in the sense of God's permissive will, yes. It would seem to be the same reasoning applied to Adam's choice to disobey the law of 'you shall not eat'.Now, I suppose a case could be made, at least in theory, that the fallen angels came to earth without God's permission and to take up residence. But that would presume that they are autonomous and can do as they please.
It is a verse I am suggesting is evidence of what kind of 'spirits' can be expected 'on earth' that are not their natural habitation. I do concede that the book of Revelation is composted of "apocalyptic symbolism". However, along with other pieces of biblical evidence like the Bible affirming the existence of demons and evil spirits, the possible Jude account, etc. It would seem reasonable to think that the Rev 12:4-9 account may also have some historical information in it as well.This trails off into a bit of a different topic but does relate to what I am saying. One of the key scriptures used to support Satan and a third if the angels being cast down to the earth is Rev 12:4-9. But that requires a rigidly literal interpretation of a book that is composed of apocalyptic symbolism.
I suppose that would be true if we focus on the 'how they came'. Meaning, technically they were first thrown down by Satan (per Rev 12:4-9). Two points to this however... (A) the option of disobedience was theirs, first. It would seem. (B) After being "thrown down" to earth each angel may have had a choice to remain in their natural abode (the way I have defined it) by staying in the 1st heaven, which is the literal air around us, and manifested as evil spirits and demons (something God allows), or they could have been disobedient and manifested in/on earth (something God chained them for.And it would directly contradict the assertion that fallen angels came to earth of their own volition
I agree with this. Here is my opinion...I think this is the enemy, the liar, twisting what actually happened to his benefit and trying to deceive mankind. Again my opinion, but I think the fallen envy mankind for being able to be a vessel of life. Something they were not created to do. I also have wondered about who actually benefits by all the demon names being named in the book of Enoch? God or the enemy? (that's rhetorical, clearly the enemy benefits and that's why the fallen are not named in the Holy Scriptures).However, both things are asserted by many with an incorrect view if Jude 6 and Gen 6, and a literal interpretation if Rev 12:4-9.
I do interpret is literally, ish. But it is not clear to me that it is a contradiction. Assuming my interpretation of domain is correct, for a second. Some angels decided to disobey God and sided with Satan. To disobey they must leave their assigned domain (area of authority). By willfully leaving their domain and falling under the rule of Satan, they are then "thrown down" to earth (which is now under Satan's authority).
Well, the Jude verse as I have interpreted it, is evidence. Just not convincing enough for you. Which is perfectly understandable. On its own, it shouldn't be sufficient for anyone. But I provided other evidence in my post that you don't address in this post.Sure. But there is no evidence of that in Scripture. An interpretive view of Jude 1:6 does not suffice as evidence when no actual evidence is given.
Humans on earth...will be like angels in heaven...when they die. Seems pretty straight forward. Humans are on earth, by natural residence and angels are in heaven, by natural residence.God created earth and all that is in it for humans, as our home, not the home of angels, that is true. Jesus' point was not where angels live however. The fact that earth is not their home, but is ours, does not mean they are not allowed to come to earth. Scripture shows us God sends them here frequently. And we really have no reason to believe they are not always here.
So God created the earth, 1st heaven, 2nd heaven, 3rd heaven.
Well, the relevant part is that being said to be "on earth" can in fact constitute "earth" and the "1st heaven" if the 1st heaven is in fact the "air" surrounding the earth. This understanding would then be congruent with the statement in Revelation 12:4-9 that angels were thrown down "to earth".As far as I am concerned, that is irrelevant to this conversation. Your statement on it will suffice and I don't think will altar my response to what follows.
Please refer to the rest of my post and post #44 to you. It will clear this up.But wait. I thought you said they were locked up in chains for leaving heaven and coming to earth.![]()
Because God calls us to truth and some have made claims that must be evaluated, discerned, and spoken too. Simply stating that angels cannot procreate with human women may not be sufficient. But if the true story, as far as God will reveal, is pursued and articulated properly, one may be set free from deception. Truth dies in darkness.If God doesn't, why should we?
That is why there were question marks after each sentence when someone ask the question "why". It was not a generalization. Not even a supposition. Punctuation marks are important to pay attention to. They mean something.No offense because I know we have different beliefs on this and that's fine -but since you responded to a post directed at me I just wanted to say I don't think it's fair to generalize people you know nothing about because of those different beliefs. And implying no hard work is being done in actual bible study.
Churches need to teach God's word chapter by chapter and verse by verse -not a few verses surrounded by a personal sermon.
I agree that pastors should be teaching God's word in context and not pulling a scripture as though it was from nowhere and teaching it as application only, never finding out the meaning first. A great many pastors today are not even qualified to do that or know that it should be done. And I too left the church I was attending to find one that was teaching about God. I had a thirst and a need, and I did not even know what I meant by my heart's cry, "I want to hear about God!" Whatever it was, I couldnt find it in any church I tried. Not because it is in no church, but because I didn't know where to look.I just want the truth.
Thank you for your testimony, Julie.I for one left my church over 20 years ago because I was tired of being fed milk sitting on a church pew listening to someone's personal written sermon once a week that had nothing to do with the word of God. And I was being fed false doctrines on top of that.
I left so I could put the hard work of actual study in. And more often than not, going to the Hebrew/Greek as well because much can get lost through translation. I claimed to even call myself a Christian and hadn't even read the bible in it's entirety for the first time until over 20 years ago. I like many others let my church do the teaching. Churches need to teach God's word chapter by chapter and verse by verse -not a few verses surrounded by a personal sermon.
If I came off that way I am sorry. I thought it was back and forth on both of our parts. Each of us providing what we believe is the context for our beliefs.If it is the truth you are after, why did all your responses to me assume you were right and I was wrong, without even considering or engaging with what I put forth?
I realize punctuation is important. But this is what you posted below that I was referring to and I only see one question mark. So no, there was not one after every sentence. So it did feel like you were generalizing but if you weren't then fine, my mistake.That is why there were question marks after each sentence when someone ask the question "why". It was not a generalization. Not even a supposition. Punctuation marks are important to pay attention to. They mean something.
Because it is dramatic and "interesting" and distracting from doing the real work of pursuing knowing God and the hard work of actual study of the Bible itself growth in Christ? It would make a great movie! full of action and intrigue. And in fact, that has been done in principle more than once.
And thus began an intense study into Reformed theology. That is the theology that established the doctrines of the Protestant church as it came to be known, breaking away from the corruption of scripture that had entered the RCC.
Thank you for the suggestions. At this time, I'm very wary of man's word at this point but I'm always willing to check someone out.Check out the sermons and teachings on You Tube of Voddie Baucham and R.C. Sproul to get an idea on how they teach and preach. Since you say that you just want the truth.
That isn't autonomous in any sense of the word. That aside, Rev says God threw them to the earth as a punishment. You have indicated you interpret that literally as Satan and one third of the angels being thrown to earth. I don't so my argument here is according to your own stated view. So, which is it?Autonomous in the sense of God's permissive will, yes. It would seem to be the same reasoning applied to Adam's choice to disobey the law of 'you shall not eat'.
That response side steps the issue of the contradiction with your interpretation of Jude 1:6. Which is the point I was making.It is a verse I am suggesting is evidence of what kind of 'spirits' can be expected 'on earth' that are not their natural habitation. I do concede that the book of Revelation is composted of "apocalyptic symbolism". However, along with other pieces of biblical evidence like the Bible affirming the existence of demons and evil spirits, the possible Jude account, etc. It would seem reasonable to think that the Rev 12:4-9 account may also have some historical information in it as well.
As I said the first time the attempt to impose speculation into Scripture in order to maintain the fixed opinion is something I don't deal with. Meaning, I am not going to deal with the speculation as it is futile. It is arguing against/for speculation on the grounds of speculation.I suppose that would be true if we focus on the 'how they came'. Meaning, technically they were first thrown down by Satan (per Rev 12:4-9). Two points to this however... (A) the option of disobedience was theirs, first. It would seem. (B) After being "thrown down" to earth each angel may have had a choice to remain in their natural abode (the way I have defined it) by staying in the 1st heaven, which is the literal air around us, and manifested as evil spirits and demons (something God allows), or they could have been disobedient and manifested in/on earth (something God chained them for.
If your interpretation is wrong it isn't evidence. You can't prove your interpretation is right. You attempt to do so with more speculation of things you cannot prove. That is why I don't address those speculations. See above.Well, the Jude verse as I have interpreted it, is evidence. Just not convincing enough for you. Which is perfectly understandable. On its own, it shouldn't be sufficient for anyone. But I provided other evidence in my post that you don't address in this post.
So was Jesus also saying that when we die our natural residence is heaven? Is. 11 and Rev 21 say otherwise. Jesus wasn't talking about where we live or where angels live. He was talking about "Whose wife will she be?" I am sure you are familiar with the setting in which Jesus said that.Humans on earth...will be like angels in heaven...when they die. Seems pretty straight forward. Humans are on earth, by natural residence and angels are in heaven, by natural residence.
Well, in the first place I don't think the Rev passages you refer to are literal. I think they are expressing something far deeper that is literal but this is not the place to rabbit trail off into that. And I am not trying to find a way to fit one scripture Jude1:6 into what I presume and to not be a contradiction to a literal Rev 12:4-9 at the same time.Well, the relevant part is that being said to be "on earth" can in fact constitute "earth" and the "1st heaven" if the 1st heaven is in fact the "air" surrounding the earth. This understanding would then be congruent with the statement in Revelation 12:4-9 that angels were thrown down "to earth".
It didn't. Sorry. I know it does for you.Please refer to the rest of my post and post #44 to you. It will clear this up.
Because God calls us to truth and some have made claims that must be evaluated, discerned, and spoken too
To which I replied, "If God doesn't why should we?" In reference to what I marked in red. So, your response in the quote above this one is not really dealing with what I was responding to.See above. I don't think one needs to speculate or wonder. God gives us sufficient clues to have a general idea of who these spirits and demons are (without looking to outside text). The Holy Scripture doesn't go into great detail, but why would one think God would give recognition to the fallen. In other words, the Bible doesn't go into a lot of detail for a reason, imo. But, again imo, it does give us clues so that we might be informed enough to deny any exaggerated claims.
My oversight. there was only one question. The rest was commentary, obviously, and though it may not be true of you, it is of some. I have listened to them on other threads on this subject and their interaction is almost exclusively on this subject.I realize punctuation is important. But this is what you posted below that I was referring to and I only see one question mark. So no, there was not one after every sentence. So it did feel like you were generalizing but if you weren't then fine, my mistake.
Men wrote the Bible. And though there is no new inspired writing, that does not mean that everything that is being taught by men is wrong. That is for the hearer to check for themselves from the Scripture. You might be wrong too (not a personal you).Thank you for the suggestions. At this time, I'm very wary of man's word at this point but I'm always willing to check someone out.