What does Genesis 6:4 Actually Say?

Paleouss · Wednesday at 9:31 AM

Greetings to all and hope and peace in our Lord Jesus Christ.

My general question is, what does Genesis 6:4 actually say? In other words, does Genesis 6:4 present 3 subject groups or 4 subject groups? Here are the possible subject groups...

1. Nephilim (han-nə-p̄i-lîm)
2. sons of God (ḇə-nê- hā-’ĕ-lō-hîm)
3. daughters of man (bə-nō-wṯ hā-’ā-ḏām)
4. "and bore children to them"

After the presentation of the subject groups within Genesis 6:4, there is this statement (I provided various translations below)...

(Gen 6:4d KJV) "...the same [became] mighty men which [were] of old, men of renown."
(Gen 6:4 ESV) "...These were the mighty men who were of old, the men of renown."
(Gen 6:4 NASB20) " Those were the mighty men who [were] of old, men of renown."

So the question is, to which subject group is this ending statement referring? Is it referring to subject group #1 or #4?

If you assert that subjects #1 and #4 are the same subject group, then please explain how this verse can be read where subjects #1 and #4 are the same entity because this is what appears to be happing within the verse...

A. The Nephilim are brought up as being on earth
B. A time reference it given to the reader in the form of an event and said the Nephilim are on earth at the same time as this event was happening.
C. Then the event is presented, the event consists of children who are born in the union of sons of God and daughters of men.

In other words the Nephilim are contrasted within the verse with subjects #2, #3, #4. Therefore, it doesn't appear that subject group #4 is the same as subject group #1.

So back to the original question...does this ending statement refer to subject group #1 or group #4?

Keep seeking God's truth as if it were hidden treasure (Prov 2)

d taylor · Wednesday at 11:12 AM

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There were nephilim, (fallen or mighty ones) on the earth in those days, and also afterward, when the sons of God came in to the daughters of men and they bore children to them. Those were the mighty men who were of old, men of renown.

1. Sons of God = angels (fallen)
2. Daughters of men (human women)
3. Nephilim=children that the daughters of men bore, they are also the mighty men who were of old, men of renown.

Paleouss · Wednesday at 11:48 AM

d taylor said:
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There were nephilim, (fallen or mighty ones) on the earth in those days, and also afterward, when the sons of God came in to the daughters of men and they bore children to them. Those were the mighty men who were of old, men of renown.

1. Sons of God = angels (fallen)
2. Daughters of men (human women)
3. Nephilim=children that the daughters of men bore, they are also the mighty men who were of old, men of renown.

Greetings d taylor. Thank you for your reply.

I was looking for more of a verse breakdown from Genesis 6:4. I'll do some of the breakdown for you and then you can present your position.

Genesis 6:4 breakdown...
Subject (A): "The Nephilim"
Time Referene for Nephilim: "were on the earth in those days, and also afterward"

The verse starts telling us that the Nephilim were on the earth. To denote a more precise "when" the verse gives an event reference and says that the Nephilim were on the earth at that very same time as the event presented.

So what event reference does the text in Genesis 6:4 give? It gives this event specifically...when the sons of God came in to the daughters of man and they bore children to them.

So this is what I'm looking to be explained, that is, how can the Nephilim also be the children if the children are part of the event that is being given as "when" they were "also" on the earth?

Surly the writer isn't saying...The Nephilim were on the earth when they were born and also after they were born. That seems like a, duh.

So I'm at a loss to what grammatical evidence (from Genesis 6:4) you think the Nephilim are also the children? Can you explain this for me?

(Gen 6:4 ESV) 4 The Nephilim were on the earth in those days, and also afterward, when the sons of God came in to the daughters of man and they bore children to them. These were the mighty men who were of old, the men of renown.

Peace to you brother

d taylor · Wednesday at 12:10 PM

Paleouss said:
Greetings d taylor. Thank you for your reply.

I was looking for more of a verse breakdown from Genesis 6:4. I'll do some of the breakdown for you and then you can present your position.

Genesis 6:4 breakdown...
Subject (A): "The Nephilim"
Time Referene for Nephilim: "were on the earth in those days, and also afterward"

The verse starts telling us that the Nephilim were on the earth. To denote a more precise "when" the verse gives an event reference and says that the Nephilim were on the earth at that very same time as the event presented.

So what event reference does the text in Genesis 6:4 give? It gives this event specifically...when the sons of God came in to the daughters of man and they bore children to them.

So this is what I'm looking to be explained, that is, how can the Nephilim also be the children if the children are part of the event that is being given as "when" they were "also" on the earth?

Surly the writer isn't saying...The Nephilim were on the earth when they were born and also after they were born. That seems like a, duh.

So I'm at a loss to what grammatical evidence (from Genesis 6:4) you think the Nephilim are also the children? Can you explain this for me?

Peace to you brother

-

"In those days" simply means in the days of the intermarriage, it is referencing back to 6:2.

The nephilim were on the earth in the days of the intermarriage because the nephilim were the result of the intermarriage.

There were nephilim, (fallen or mighty ones) on the earth in those days, and also afterward, when the sons of God came in to the daughters of men and they bore children to them. Those were the mighty men who were of old, men of renown.

Maria Billingsley · Wednesday at 8:11 PM

Paleouss said:
Greetings to all and hope and peace in our Lord Jesus Christ.

My general question is, what does Genesis 6:4 actually say? In other words, does Genesis 6:4 present 3 subject groups or 4 subject groups? Here are the possible subject groups...

1. Nephilim (han-nə-p̄i-lîm)
2. sons of God (ḇə-nê- hā-’ĕ-lō-hîm)
3. daughters of man (bə-nō-wṯ hā-’ā-ḏām)
4. "and bore children to them"

After the presentation of the subject groups within Genesis 6:4, there is this statement (I provided various translations below)...

(Gen 6:4d KJV) "...the same [became] mighty men which [were] of old, men of renown."
(Gen 6:4 ESV) "...These were the mighty men who were of old, the men of renown."
(Gen 6:4 NASB20) " Those were the mighty men who [were] of old, men of renown."

So the question is, to which subject group is this ending statement referring? Is it referring to subject group #1 or #4?

If you assert that subjects #1 and #4 are the same subject group, then please explain how this verse can be read where subjects #1 and #4 are the same entity because this is what appears to be happing within the verse...

A. The Nephilim are brought up as being on earth
B. A time reference it given to the reader in the form of an event and said the Nephilim are on earth at the same time as this event was happening.
C. Then the event is presented, the event consists of children who are born in the union of sons of God and daughters of men.

In other words the Nephilim are contrasted within the verse with subjects #2, #3, #4. Therefore, it doesn't appear that subject group #4 is the same as subject group #1.

So back to the original question...does this ending statement refer to subject group #1 or group #4?

Keep seeking God's truth as if it were hidden treasure (Prov 2)

None of the four categories. They are the " fallen ones" , not fallen angels( mistakenly called sons of God) and not the offspring, ( mistakenly called the Nephilim) but those who denied the one true God when Noah preached and continually warned them. These were men not made in the image of God most likely Homo neanderthalensis that homo sapiens bore children with. They still exist hence " afterward " in most human DNA.

My unique take on the matter.

Be blessed.

BelieveItOarKnot · 2026-01-01T07:10:31-0600

Paleouss said:
Greetings to all and hope and peace in our Lord Jesus Christ.

My general question is, what does Genesis 6:4 actually say? In other words, does Genesis 6:4 present 3 subject groups or 4 subject groups? Here are the possible subject groups...

1. Nephilim (han-nə-p̄i-lîm)
2. sons of God (ḇə-nê- hā-’ĕ-lō-hîm)
3. daughters of man (bə-nō-wṯ hā-’ā-ḏām)
4. "and bore children to them"

After the presentation of the subject groups within Genesis 6:4, there is this statement (I provided various translations below)...

(Gen 6:4d KJV) "...the same [became] mighty men which [were] of old, men of renown."
(Gen 6:4 ESV) "...These were the mighty men who were of old, the men of renown."
(Gen 6:4 NASB20) " Those were the mighty men who [were] of old, men of renown."

So the question is, to which subject group is this ending statement referring? Is it referring to subject group #1 or #4?

If you assert that subjects #1 and #4 are the same subject group, then please explain how this verse can be read where subjects #1 and #4 are the same entity because this is what appears to be happing within the verse...

A. The Nephilim are brought up as being on earth
B. A time reference it given to the reader in the form of an event and said the Nephilim are on earth at the same time as this event was happening.
C. Then the event is presented, the event consists of children who are born in the union of sons of God and daughters of men.

In other words the Nephilim are contrasted within the verse with subjects #2, #3, #4. Therefore, it doesn't appear that subject group #4 is the same as subject group #1.

So back to the original question...does this ending statement refer to subject group #1 or group #4?

Keep seeking God's truth as if it were hidden treasure (Prov 2)

Angels of either sort, holy or wicked don't have sexual relations with humans and then bear hybrid human children as a result, so that angle is out.

You are left with humans only. But keep in mind that humans are occupied by devils so it's a bit more complicated than what appears on the surface of the narratives, affirmed by scriptures such as Mark 4:15, 2 Cor. 4:4, Eph. 2:2, 1 John 3:8 etc etc

JulieB67 · 2026-01-02T07:14:09-0600

BelieveItOarKnot said:
Angels of either sort, holy or wicked don't have sexual relations with humans and then bear hybrid human children as a result, so that angle is out.

They are indeed fallen angels who had sex with human women.

You are left with humans only

That is not the case as we can see when we go back to verse 1.

Genesis 6:1 "And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them,"

This verse tells us that human men are already multiplying and that human daughters were born to them. So we've already established that human men and women are producing daughters.

Genesis 6:2 "That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose."

So this verse is telling us something completely different. This tells us that the sons of God saw that the daughters of men were fair and took them took them wives. The sons of God are angels. Again, human men are already mating with human women in verse 1. So verse 2 makes no sense if you are believing this is just repeating the same thing.

Genesis 6:4 "There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown."

We have a second witness to this sin in Jude. And the offspring is certain not normal of human men and women and it's pointing that out.

Jude 6 "And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, He hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day."

Jude 7 "Even as Sodom and Gomorrah, and the cities about them, in like manner giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire."

What strange flesh? Human women. And they left their own habitation to do so. If you believe differently what fornication did they give themselves or to by going after strange flesh? That is their sin.

I know you believe that the fallen angels are simply spirits and that's it but that is simply not the case. They have bodies and we look like them and vice versa. We can also eat each others food and so on. So if God is telling me that they can mate with human women and that they went after strange flesh I will believe it.

BelieveItOarKnot · 2026-01-02T07:31:17-0600

JulieB67 said:
They are indeed fallen angels who had sex with human women.

Uh no. Thinking Satan and devils have sex and half breed devil/humans babies is a well debunked cultic hoax and a known heresy to boot.

Explains a lot about your other positions too if this is in the pile

JulieB67 said:
This verse tells us that human men are already multiplying and that human daughters were born to them. So we've already established that human men and women are producing daughters.

No issues

JulieB67 said:
So this verse is telling us something completely different. This tells us that the sons of God saw that the daughters of men

Well, back up the heresy bus and unload the falsehood that "sons of God" are something other than male people. Sons of God are people.

JulieB67 said:
were fair and took them took them wives. The sons of God are angels. Again, human men are already mating with human women in verse 1. So verse 2 makes no sense if you are believing this is just repeating the same thing.

No, it's just phony spins inserting something that isn't there.

JulieB67 said:
Genesis 6:4 "There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown."

We have a second witness to this sin in Jude. And the offspring is certain not normal of human men and women and it's pointing that out.

Line breeding is also a well known scientific fact i.e. breeding large to large makes larger offspring. No sense sensationalizing it.

JulieB67 said:
Jude 6 "And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, He hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day."

Jude 7 "Even as Sodom and Gomorrah, and the cities about them, in like manner giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire."

What strange flesh? Human women.

You are simply jumping into an unnecessary theological frying pan stemming from a basic misread from the start.

JulieB67 said:
And they left their own habitation to do so. If you believe differently what fornication did they give themselves or to by going after strange flesh? That is their sin.

It's speaking of sexual immorality among people.

JulieB67 said:
I know you believe that the fallen angels are simply spirits and that's it

Yes, that is it. There is no physical proof of material devils. Zero. Let alone reproducing with humans UNLESS you're in a cult like Shepherds chapel and other fringe cults.

JulieB67 said:
but that is simply not the case. They have bodies and we look like them and vice versa. We can also eat each others food and so on. So if God is telling me that they can mate with human women and that they went after strange flesh I will believe it.

I think you already know it doesn't matter to me what you believe. It does explain a lot about what positions you espouse though.

Fairy tales

snowbound · 2026-01-02T07:38:58-0600

JulieB67 said:
They are indeed fallen angels who had sex with human women.

That is not the case as we can see when we go back to verse 1.

Genesis 6:1 "And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them,"

This verse tells us that human men are already multiplying and that human daughters were born to them. So we've already established that human men and women are producing daughters.

Genesis 6:2 "That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose."

So this verse is telling us something completely different. This tells us that the sons of God saw that the daughters of men were fair and took them took them wives. The sons of God are angels. Again, human men are already mating with human women in verse 1. So verse 2 makes no sense if you are believing this is just repeating the same thing.

Genesis 6:4 "There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown."

We have a second witness to this sin in Jude. And the offspring is certain not normal of human men and women and it's pointing that out.

Jude 6 "And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, He hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day."

Jude 7 "Even as Sodom and Gomorrah, and the cities about them, in like manner giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire."

What strange flesh? Human women. And they left their own habitation to do so. If you believe differently what fornication did they give themselves or to by going after strange flesh? That is their sin.

I know you believe that the fallen angels are simply spirits and that's it but that is simply not the case. They have bodies and we look like them and vice versa. We can also eat each others food and so on. So if God is telling me that they can mate with human women and that they went after strange flesh I will believe it.

Great response! At times it's difficult to get things right. This is a subject where views go in every direction.

Paleouss · 2026-01-02T08:08:07-0600

Greetings to you d Taylor, many thanks for your time and reply.

d taylor said:
"In those days" simply means in the days of the intermarriage, it is referencing back to 6:2.

I agree. the words "in those days and also afterward" is a time reference. The verse says "the Nephilim were on the earth". Then it attempts to tell us WHEN they were on the earth. To inform us of the when, the writer uses an event as a reference. The simultaneity event is, word for word, "when the sons of God came in to the daughters of man and they bore children to them." All of what I just copied within the text is the simultaneous event in which the Nephilim were on the earth. That simultaneous event written in Genesis 6:4 is also written in Genesis 6:2.

d taylor said:
The nephilim were on the earth in the days of the intermarriage because the nephilim were the result of the intermarriage.

It doesn't seem like that is the natural reading of the text. The natural reading of the text is that the Nephilim are on the earth 'at the same time' as the event (i.e., children being born). Your statement seems to require one to infer things onto the text. Things like, the Nephilim were on the earth because they were a "result of the intermarriage". The text doesn't say that. In fact, it seems to me that the most natural reading of the text doesn't even imply it.

I'm looking at the most natural reading of the text for the most objective evaluation.

Peace to you brother

Paleouss · 2026-01-02T08:19:21-0600

Maria Billingsley said:
None of the four categories

Greetings to you Maria. Grace and hope to you in our Lord Jesus Christ.

Maria Billingsley said:
They are the " fallen ones"

I agree. However, the term "fallen ones" does not denote the subject being referred. One needs context for that.

Maria Billingsley said:
not fallen angels( mistakenly called sons of God)

First, to be transparent, I do not think that the idiom "sons of God" in Gen 6:2,4 are fallen angels. I think they are men. However, Job refers to angels as "sons of God". Do you agree with that?

Maria Billingsley said:
None of the four categories. They are the " fallen ones" , not fallen angels( mistakenly called sons of God) and not the offspring, ( mistakenly called the Nephilim) but those who denied the one true God when Noah preached and continually warned them. These were men not made in the image of God most likely Homo neanderthalensis that homo sapiens bore children with. They still exist hence " afterward " in most human DNA.

My unique take on the matter.

I'm going to try and parse this out. Let me know if I am doing it accurately, according to you.

You are saying that the "Nephilim" (from a root that means "fallen") in Genesis 6:4 are Neanderthal men. Just so I can fully conceptualize your assertion...do you hold to evolution?

Additionally, do you have any other scriptural evidence or other readings for this position so I may study?

Peace to you brother.

Paleouss · 2026-01-02T08:37:06-0600

Greetings to you BelieveItOarKnot. I hope your week has been a good one.

BelieveItOarKnot said:
Angels of either sort, holy or wicked don't have sexual relations with humans and then bear hybrid human children as a result

I agree here. Do you have an opinion on the OP which asks which subject group the ending phrase, "These were the mighty men who were of old, the men of renown", refers? Subject group #1 or #4? Or do you think #1 and #4 are the same group?

BelieveItOarKnot said:
You are left with humans only. But keep in mind that humans are occupied by devils so it's a bit more complicated than what appears on the surface of the narratives, affirmed by scriptures such as Mark 4:15, 2 Cor. 4:4, Eph. 2:2, 1 John 3:8 etc etc

I agree that the ḇə-nê-hā-’ĕ-lō-hîm ("sons of God") in Genesis 6:4 are humans (based on context). However, the idiom 'sons of...' denotes belonging, affiliation, favor, and representation in the Bible. In other words, in this case the subject matter of the idiom is a representative of God; for they are "sons of God". This seems very clear in the Job verses.

So if it is the case that the Job verses should be our guide. Then the reference in Genesis 6 to ḇə-nê-hā-’ĕ-lō-hîm ("sons of God") is in reference to good humans, of God. In no instance do I think evil humans should be considered.

Peace to you brother

Paleouss · 2026-01-02T08:52:34-0600

JulieB67 said:
Genesis 6:4 "There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown."

We have a second witness to this sin in Jude. And the offspring is certain not normal of human men and women and it's pointing that out.

Greetings to you Julie. Hope and peace to you in our Lord Jesus Christ.

I think we have debated before on this issue. I do remember you holding that the "sons of God" are angels. My inquiry this time, in the OP, was specifically pointed at Genesis 6. I'm curious to what you think about the natural reading of the text? Here it is...

Verse Breakdown
(1) Reference Group #1: The Nephilim
(2) Existed: on the earth in those days, and also afterward,

(3) When?

(4) Simultaneity Event : when the sons of God came in to the daughters of man and they bore children to them.

So the Nephilim were on the earth...when?...when the children were born from the union of sons of God and daughters of man.

In other words, when babies were being born from this union...there were also Nephilim on the earth.

Do you think that this is the natural reading of this exact part of Genesis 6:4 I have presented?

Peace to you sister

snowbound · 2026-01-02T09:14:15-0600

I think the evidence is clear that they are angels. But people chose to believe or not believe what they like. Is changing the mind out of the question on this?

c. angels Psalm 97:7 (Greek Version of the LXX Syriac Version Calvin; but gods, Hup De Pe Che); compare בני (ה)אלהים = (the) sons of God, or sons of gods = angels Job 1:6; Job 2:1; Job 38:7; Genesis 6:2, 4 (J; so Greek Version of the LXX Books of Enoch & Jubilees Philo Jude Jude 1:6 2 Peter 2:4 JosAnt. i. 3. 1, most ancient fathers and modern critics; against usage are sons of princes, mighty men, Onk and Rab.; sons of God, the pious, Theod Chrys Jerome Augustine Luther Calvin Hengst; LXX of Lucian (Lag.)

H430 - 'ĕlōhîm - Strong's Hebrew Lexicon (KJV)

H430 - אֱלֹהִים ʼĕlôhîym, el-o-heem'; plural of ; gods in the ordinary sense; but specifically used (in the plural thus, especially with the article) of the supreme God; occasionally applied by way of deference to magistrates; and sometimes as a superlative:—angels, exceeding, God (gods)...

www.blueletterbible.org

d taylor · 2026-01-02T09:20:37-0600

Paleouss said:
Greetings to you d Taylor, many thanks for your time and reply.

I agree. the words "in those days and also afterward" is a time reference. The verse says "the Nephilim were on the earth". Then it attempts to tell us WHEN they were on the earth. To inform us of the when, the writer uses an event as a reference. The simultaneity event is, word for word, "when the sons of God came in to the daughters of man and they bore children to them." All of what I just copied within the text is the simultaneous event in which the Nephilim were on the earth. That simultaneous event written in Genesis 6:4 is also written in Genesis 6:2.

It doesn't seem like that is the natural reading of the text. The natural reading of the text is that the Nephilim are on the earth 'at the same time' as the event (i.e., children being born). Your statement seems to require one to infer things onto the text. Things like, the Nephilim were on the earth because they were a "result of the intermarriage". The text doesn't say that. In fact, it seems to me that the most natural reading of the text doesn't even imply it.

I'm looking at the most natural reading of the text for the most objective evaluation.

Peace to you brother

-

No the verse does not say what you are trying to make it say. That the nephilim were on the earth before those days. The verse states in those days, referring to the days the sons of God married the daughters of men.

JulieB67 · 2026-01-02T09:37:59-0600

BelieveItOarKnot said:
It's speaking of sexual immorality among people.

It specifically mentioned the angels. But I forgot, context doesn't matter to you.

Jude 6 "And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, He hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day."

It states "and the angels" giving us the subject. Can you follow that train of thought?

Continuing- "in like manner" Meaning just as Sodom and Gomorrah, they gave them selves over to fornication going after strange flesh. They left their own habitation -clearly talking about the angels and in like manner gave themselves over...." Nothing about people here. So no, you are inserting that.

Jude 7 "Even as Sodom and Gomorrah, and the cities about them, in like manner giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire."

"sons of God" are something other than male people

It's been noted more than a few times in the OT that the sons of God can be angels.

JulieB67 · 2026-01-02T09:47:25-0600

snowbound said:
At times it's difficult to get things right

I know. I just feel like the scriptures speak for themselves. And people need to apply a little common sense. Especially with verse 1. If it's noted than humans are already multiplying, etc than naturally it's talking about something completely different in verse 2.

snowbound said:
This is a subject where views go in every direction.

Yes, I've seen many. But I really believe Jude nails it down.

Maria Billingsley · 2026-01-02T09:48:54-0600

Paleouss said:
Greetings to you Maria. Grace and hope to you in our Lord Jesus Christ.

I agree. However, the term "fallen ones" does not denote the subject being referred. One needs context for that.

First, to be transparent, I do not think that the idiom "sons of God" in Gen 6:2,4 are fallen angels. I think they are men. However, Job refers to angels as "sons of God". Do you agree with that?

I'm going to try and parse this out. Let me know if I am doing it accurately, according to you.

You are saying that the "Nephilim" (from a root that means "fallen") in Genesis 6:4 are Neanderthal men. Just so I can fully conceptualize your assertion...do you hold to evolution?

Additionally, do you have any other scriptural evidence or other readings for this position so I may study?

Peace to you brother.

I do not hold to evolution, I look at science in light of scripture. Science is uncovering the truth of God's creation. As a wise King once said , "That which has been is what will be. That which is done is what will be done. And there is nothing new under the sun." This hints to me that there is a lot to learn and a lot to be uncovered that is already there. Additionally, God's Messenger revealed to Daniel that knowledge will increase.
All this said, my analysis involves paleoanthropology to a certain extent. I do not discard what has been proven scientifically but rather reconcile with scripture.

Here is a short synopsis:
A Neanderthal-Homo sapiens offspring would present a potentially powerful mosaic of traits. Physically, they would be extremely robust and muscular from the Neanderthal heritage, but with the taller, slimmer Homo sapiens frame, potentially resulting in a unique, highly durable physique. Mentally, they would likely possess a large brain combining the Neanderthal's visual and motor processing prowess with the abstract thought, complex language, and large social network capacity of the modern human. This hybrid might exhibit unmatched hunting and survival skills coupled with intellectual curiosity and innovation.
These would be the Nephilim.

As far as the interchangeable lable of "sons of God" found in the new and old testament, I see all of God's creation whether in the flesh or not as sons. In Luke, Adam is called "the son of God" in the genealogy of Jesus Christ of Nazareth. So " sons of God" in Genesis is most likely referring to the homo sapien modern human and Job referrs to His messengers. This is also the lable for a Christian.

I never researched to see if this view has ever been discussed.

JulieB67 · 2026-01-02T09:55:26-0600

Paleouss said:
o the Nephilim were on the earth...when?...when the children were born from the union of sons of God and daughters of man.

In other words, when babies were being born from this union...there were also Nephilim on the earth.

Hello,

I believe the scripture is pretty clear that the nephilim were the offspring of the angels and human women. And that it started after human daughters were being produced and the sons of God came unto the daughters of men.

Genesis 6:4 "There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown."

Maria Billingsley · 2026-01-02T10:44:50-0600

I want to add one more thought to my post #18.

Genesis tells us this:
13 And Cain said to the Lord, “My punishment is greater than I can bear! 14 Surely You have driven me out this day from the face of the ground; I shall be hidden from Your face; I shall be a fugitive and a vagabond on the earth, and it will happen that anyone who finds me will kill me.”15 And the Lord said to him, “Therefore, whoever kills Cain, vengeance shall be taken on him sevenfold.” And the Lord set a mark on Cain, lest anyone finding him should kill him.16 Then Cain went out from the presence of the Lord and dwelt in the land of Nod on the east of Eden. 17 And Cain knew his wife, and she conceived and bore Enoch. And he built a city, and called the name of the city after the name of his son—Enoch.

I could never reconcile the " brother sister" marriage nor could I understand why Cain would be so frightened of his brothers and sisters, would they kill him? And most importantly, were many of Adam and Eve's children cast out as well? Doesn't make sense. So the theory is , those who lived outside of God's presence were not made in His image. Thus Cain married a Neanderthal woman.

I know speculative!

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