Vatican stops use of titles for Mary

Clare73 said:

No, the Bible is the word of God (2 Tim 3:16),
while Jesus is the Word who is God (Jn 1:1, 14).

Keeping in mind the meaning of "word" in Greek philosophy. . .the First Cause and Great Intelligence behind the universe.

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πᾶσα γραφὴ θεόπνευστος καὶ ὠφέλιμος πρὸς διδασκαλίαν, πρὸς ἔλεγχον, πρὸς ἐπανόρθωσιν, πρὸς παιδείαν τὴν ἐν δικαιοσύνῃ·

Can you show me where in 2 Tim 3:16 you see the word λόγος?

2 Tim 3:15 And because from thy infancy thou hast known the holy scriptures which can instruct thee to salvation by the faith which is in Christ Jesus.
3:16 All scripture, inspired of God, is profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct in justice:

The Scriptures Timothy knew from his infancy ( most likely before Christ was crucified ) is the Tanakh. Paul COULD NOT be referring to the Bible. Paul was referring to the Tanakh.

concretecamper said:

2 Tim 3:15 And because from thy infancy thou hast known the holy scriptures which can instruct thee to salvation by the faith which is in Christ Jesus.
3:16 All scripture, inspired of God, is profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct in justice:

The Scriptures Timothy knew from his infancy ( most likely before Christ was crucified ) is the Tanakh. Paul COULD NOT be referring to the Bible. Paul was referring to the Tanakh.

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Not even the Tanakh, but St. Timothy would in infancy have known only the Targumim, or Aramaic glosses of it, which would have been understood before one learned the liturgical Hebrew, since in the year 0, Hebrew was a liturgical language like the Latin, Koine Greek, Church Slavonic or Jacobean English of today (one major error made by Vatican II was the presumption of an imperative for vernacular in the liturgy even though Vatican II never declared an all-vernacular liturgy; comprehensibility is enough, where admittedly Latin was losing ground, but what was indicated was the use of liturgical languages like Galgolithic had been used in the Slavic lands and the formal Jacobean English used by Anglicans and until recently by all Anglophone Eastern Orthodox; even more wrong was the choice of an intentional oversimplification of the text via a vis “and also with you” instead of “and with thy spirit” found in the ancient Greek and Latin liturgies.

concretecamper said:

2 Tim 3:15 And because from thy infancy thou hast known the holy scriptures which can instruct thee to salvation by the faith which is in Christ Jesus.
3:16 All scripture, inspired of God, is profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct in justice:

The Scriptures Timothy knew from his infancy ( most likely before Christ was crucified ) is the Tanakh. Paul COULD NOT be referring to the Bible. Paul was referring to the Tanakh.

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There's also the question of what theopneustas means in context, because there is a good case to be made that prior to Origen the idea was a life-giving property to the texts which fits with Pauls focus on the usefulness of the Scriptures in pastoral service rather than a theory of inspiration. It is out-breath not in-breath.