Dikaioumenoi
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It's not a matter of what must logically be the case; it's a matter of what John actually wrote. Can you walk through the syntax of this verse and show my error?I honestly don't see the logic in maintaining that the possbilblty of somethiing occuring means that it must occur. Yes, an event cannot occur unless it's possible for it to occur-can't argue there. But if it doesn't occur then something has opposed that occurence, not rendered it impossible. That's what Augustine was getting at.
John 6:44 consists of three clauses:
- Apodosis (result clause): οὐδεὶς δύναται ἐλθεῖν πρός με ("No one is able to come to me")
- Protasis (conditional clause): ἐὰν μὴ ὁ πατὴρ ὁ πέμψας με ἑλκύσῃ αὐτόν ("unless the Father who sent me draws him")
- Subsequent independent clause (not part of the conditional structure): κἀγὼ ἀναστήσω αὐτὸν τῇ ἐσχάτῃ ἡμέρᾳ ("and I will raise him up on the last day")
First, the conditional clause tells us only one thing:
The Father's drawing produces ability. (οὐδεὶς δύναται… ἐὰν μὴ… ἑλκύσῃ) Nothing more, nothing less.
If the Father "attempts to draw but fails," then the conditional statement is falsified. The individual would remain unable to come. That is why your claim that drawing "can fail" is not an exegetical argument. It contradicts the very syntax that defines drawing as the enabling act.
And notice: None of this tells us who actually comes. We agree on this! The conditional governs only the movement from inability --> ability. It does not address movement from ability --> actual coming.
This is why all your comments about "possibility doesn't guarantee coming" completely miss the point. That has not once been my argument. The conditional statement itself tells us only that the Father makes coming possible. But the element of the argument you've been neglecting to interact with is that the verse doesn't end there. There is another clause which stands outside the conditional statement. And notice who it references:
οὐδεὶς δύναται ἐλθεῖν πρός με
ἐὰν μὴ ὁ πατὴρ ὁ πέμψας με ἑλκύσῃ αὐτόν
κἀγὼ ἀναστήσω αὐτὸν τῇ ἐσχάτῃ ἡμέρᾳ
The αὐτόν… αὐτὸν are the same 3rd person singular pronoun. The αὐτόν in the protasis (ἑλκύσῃ αὐτόν, "[he] draws him") takes as its antecedent the "one" implied in οὐδεὶς δύναται ἐλθεῖν ("no one is able to come"). No other participant has been introduced. So the αὐτὸν in the final clause (ἀναστήσω αὐτὸν, "will raise him up") must refer back to the same αὐτὸν (i.e., the one drawn), because Greek does not shift third-person singular pronoun referents without introducing a new antecedent. John gives no such introduction.
In other words, while the notion that only some who are drawn are raised may feel logically reasonable in the abstract, John's syntax explicitly forbids it in this sentence. To hold that view, you would have to treat the second αὐτόν as referring to a narrower subset of the first αὐτόν. But that's pure philosophy, not exegesis. In spite of how reasonable you might find that, it is not grammatically defensible from what John actually wrote. Unstressed third-person singular pronouns in Greek do not generate new or narrower referents without an expressed antecedent introducing such a distinction. John introduces no new participant, no restrictive qualifier, and no delimiting phrase. The syntax of the sentence is communicating precisely that the "him" raised is the one defined as having been enabled to come.
So again, the argument is not that "enablement" logically entails "coming," as though the meaning of ἑλκύω itself smuggles in an irresistible conclusion. The point is subtler and entirely textual. John says that the one whom the Father draws -- the one whose inability has been removed -- is the same one Christ will raise. That connection does not arise from the lexical content of ἑλκύω, but from the nature of the Father's act as John presents it: a transformative divine initiative that brings a person from incapacity into the realm of responsive faith (hence, the promise of resurrection).
So the structure is:
- No one is able to come
- unless the Father draws him (this produces ability)
- and I will raise that same him -- that is, the one drawn/enabled
This is why your entire argument about the meaning of ἑλκύω is irrelevant to the Calvinist case. The Calvinist argument does not depend on treating ἑλκύω as "cause of salvation." It depends on the fact that ἑλκύω appears inside the conditional, which governs ability, and that the resurrection promise applies to the same individual referenced by the conditional pronoun. So you can define ἑλκύω however you want... it doesn't change the fact that John's syntax defines ἑλκύσῃ αὐτόν and ἀναστήσω αὐτὸν as the same individual. The one to whom ἑλκύω refers is promised salvation. The one to whom it does not refer remains unable to come. Those are the two categories.
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