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The Saving results of the Death of Christ !

zoidar

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Not entirely sure what you're meaning to say here. ἑλκύω denotes a decisive movement from one position to another. That is its semantic core. Whether the subject succeeds in the act is a question of the subject's ability, not the meaning of ἑλκύω, which is consistent with what you quoted.

Think again about the analogy I used: If I say "I am unable to lift a 1,000 pound boulder," my inability to do that doesn't define what "lift" means. "Lift" still means "to raise from the ground," not "to try to raise from the ground." One can try to lift (or ἑλκύω), and fail (e.g. John 21:6), but that does not change the definition of the word.
That is true!
So you can say that the Father tries ἑλκύω but fails, if you really want to -- that's a meaningful use of the term -- but it doesn't mean what you might think it means. If the Father tries ἑλκύω but fails, that doesn't speak to the recipient's resistance of an offer; it speaks to the Father's failure to make it possible for them to even receive it. The opening clause of John 6:44 states that no one is able to come to Christ. The exception to that is if the Father draws (ἑλκύω) them. So what does the drawing of the Father do (if successful)? It moves them from the position of "unable" to "able." Thus, if you suggest that the Father can try ἑλκύω but fail, that means it is not even possible for the individual to come to Christ, because they have not been moved into that state of "able."
As far as I get this the word ἑλκύω doesn't explain the reason the Father fails to draw the person. It can be because the person is resisting the drawing or it can be that the pull isn't strong enough or something else. It's context that determines why the drawing fails.

“He failed to lift the boulder.”

The verb "lift" means “to raise something upward.”

The sentence tells you he did not succeed in doing that action.

But the verb itself (lift) doesn’t tell you why the attempt failed.

The cause of failure could be any number of things:

the boulder’s weight,

the person’s weakness,

slippery footing,

injury, etc.
The point I was trying to make in response to fhansen is that this whole debate about the meaning of ἑλκύω is at best irrelevant, and at worst self-sabotaging for their view. Even if we were to accept "appeal/lure/woo" or something of the sort as a possible meaning for ἑλκύω, it can't be translated that way in John 6:44, because notice what the drawing modifies in the syntax of the verse: δύναται ("is able"). The Father's drawing in this context isn't merely an act of persuading people to come to Him; it is an act of making it possible for them to do so. That requires an understanding of the term that is decisive and effectual in its accomplishment, or we end up without any guarantee that salvation is possible.
 
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Brightfame52

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Those Christ died for, He redeemed them, and purchased their release from the dominion of the law and satan and secured upon them the Spirit of Adoption Gal 4:4-6

4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,

5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.

6 And because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father.

Christ was sent into the world to be birthed of a woman, in order to keep the law, even unto death, which death redeemed them He died for [sons]

The word redeem exagorazō:
  1. to redeem
    1. by payment of a price to recover from the power of another, to ransom, buy off
    2. metaph. of Christ freeing the elect from the dominion of the Mosaic Law at the price of his vicarious death
  2. to buy up, to buy up for one's self, for one's use

See those whom Christ died for are under the dominion and power of satan Acts 26:18

To open their eyes, and to turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan unto God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins, and inheritance among them which are sanctified by faith that is in me.

Col 1:13

Who hath delivered us from the power of darkness, and hath translated us into the kingdom of his dear Son:

The power of darkness here is the same as the power of satan !

Now Christs redemptive work redeems, rescues, frees those He died for from satans dominion which includes unbelief, since satan is instrumental in men being in unbelief by blinding their minds 2 Cor 4:4

4 In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.

and being rescued, delivered they receive the Adoption of Sons, which is the Spirit.

Christ dying for them evidenced them being sons, and causing them to receive the Sprit into their hearts.


Fulfilling the promise Ezk 36:27

27 And I will put my spirit[of adoption] within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do them.5
 
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Dikaioumenoi

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We don't argue against the fact that He makes it possible. We argue that our resistance can still thwart His purpose with it from actually happening. Your whole argument to begin with was that the word, by itself, necessarily indicates sufficient movement:
What I'm trying to point out to you is that your understanding of ἑλκύω necessitates that God does not necessarily make it possible. That is the implication of what you are saying, whether intended or not. What is the verb in John 6:44 that ἑλκύω conceptually modifies? δύναται, "is able." The drawing act of the Father is an act of moving the recipient from the state of "unable" to the state of "able." So if you say that this drawing can fail, what you are saying is that there is no guarantee that the Father succeeds in making it possible for people to come to Him.

I understand the point you're wanting to make regarding John 6:44 -- just because someone can come doesn't mean they will -- but what you're missing is that the semantics of ἑλκύω have nothing to do with that debate. ἑλκύω doesn't grammatically answer the question of whether or not someone actually comes to Christ. It answers the question of whether or not someone is able to do so. So when you suggest that ἑλκύω itself is not guaranteed to succeed, what you're implying is that God can attempt to make it possible for someone to come to Him, but there is no guarantee that attempt will succeed, that is, in making it possible.

It does not hurt your position in any way, in other words, to agree with me that ἑλκύω refers to a decisive movement from one position to another. That is not where the argument for irresistibility lies in the verse. The argument that the drawing (enabling) of the Father leads irresistibly to faith in Christ is a grammatical one, focused on the identity of αὐτόν ("him") grammatically uniting the actions of "draws" and "raised up."
 
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Dikaioumenoi

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As far as I get this the word ἑλκύω doesn't explain the reason the Father fails to draw the person. It can be because the person is resisting the drawing or it can be that the pull isn't strong enough or something else. It's context that determines why the drawing fails.
The word ἑλκύω explains decisive movement. Any failure of the act would be on the part of the subject's weakness, not the object's resistance.

What I'm arguing is that the Father's drawing does not fail. It can't.

Again, notice what the drawing is: the operative verb is δύναται ("is able"). It's negated by the substantive οὐδεὶς ("no one"). No one is able. That is what the drawing of the Father is a remedy for: man's inability. So to say that the Father can fail to draw a person is to say that the Father can fail to make it possible for them to come. Man's resistibility is not a factor in this because the whole point of the drawing is that man has no capacity to come anyway. To say that man can successfully resist the Father's drawing would be to say that the Father can try to make it possible for someone to come to Christ, and the recipient say, "no, I refuse to allow that possibility." Man has no say in whether he is able to do something. Ability/inability is a function of our nature.

In other words, saying that man can resist the Father's drawing misunderstands what the Father's drawing is in John 6:44. What would that resistance look like? If we say that someone could reply, "I refuse to act on God's enablement by coming to Christ," that's not a resistance of the Father's drawing. Rather, it presupposes that the Father's drawing has already succeeded: they are able to come.

Now... as a separate issue, beyond the semantics of ἑλκύω, I would argue from the grammar of John 6:44 that the Father's drawing (enabling) leads necessarily to coming, because the "him" drawn is grammatically the same individual as the "him" raised. Thus, the Father's drawing is effectual in not only enabling sinners to come to Christ, but ensuring that they will do so. However, that is an implication of pronouns of the verse, not of ἑλκύω's meaning or function itself.
 
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zoidar

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The word ἑλκύω explains decisive movement. Any failure of the act would be on the part of the subject's weakness, not the object's resistance.
ChatGpt:

"Greek (like English) can still describe an attempted but unsuccessful act of ἑλκύω through context:​

> “They were not able to ἑλκύσαι the net” (John 21:6).

Here:

ἑλκύσαι still means “to draw (so as to move).”

οὐκ ἴσχυον (“were not able”) tells you they failed to accomplish it.

That failure does not redefine the verb’s meaning — the action type is still “drawing that would cause motion.”


ἑλκύω itself doesn’t specify who or what causes failure.

The sentence “He failed to ἑλκύω” merely says the drawing did not occur; it doesn’t tell you if that was because

the subject was too weak, or

the object was too resistant.

Those are interpretive possibilities, not grammatical facts."​
What I'm arguing is that the Father's drawing does not fail. It can't.
I don't think you can get this strictly from grammer, rather you need to look at the context.
Again, notice what the drawing is: the operative verb is δύναται ("is able"). It's negated by the substantive οὐδεὶς ("no one"). No one is able. That is what the drawing of the Father is a remedy for: man's inability. So to say that the Father can fail to draw a person is to say that the Father can fail to make it possible for them to come. Man's resistibility is not a factor in this because the whole point of the drawing is that man has no capacity to come anyway. To say that man can successfully resist the Father's drawing would be to say that the Father can try to make it possible for someone to come to Christ, and the recipient say, "no, I refuse to allow that possibility." Man has no say in whether he is able to do something. Ability/inability is a function of our nature.

In other words, saying that man can resist the Father's drawing misunderstands what the Father's drawing is in John 6:44. What would that resistance look like? If we say that someone could reply, "I refuse to act on God's enablement by coming to Christ," that's not a resistance of the Father's drawing. Rather, it presupposes that the Father's drawing has already succeeded: they are able to come.

Now... as a separate issue, beyond the semantics of ἑλκύω, I would argue from the grammar of John 6:44 that the Father's drawing (enabling) leads necessarily to coming, because the "him" drawn is grammatically the same individual as the "him" raised. Thus, the Father's drawing is effectual in not only enabling sinners to come to Christ, but ensuring that they will do so. However, that is an implication of pronouns of the verse, not of ἑλκύω's meaning or function itself.
 
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Brightfame52

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@fhansen

We argue that our resistance can still thwart His purpose with it from actually happening

Prov 19:21

Many thoughts there be in the heart of a man; but the will of the Lord shall dwell. (There be many plans in a person’s heart; but the Lord’s purpose shall stand, yea, it shall prevail.)
 
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fhansen

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@fhansen



Prov 19:21

Many thoughts there be in the heart of a man; but the will of the Lord shall dwell. (There be many plans in a person’s heart; but the Lord’s purpose shall stand, yea, it shall prevail.)
And He wants all to repent, none to perish.2 Pet 3:9
 
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Dikaioumenoi

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I don't think you can get this strictly from grammer...
As I've argued, the grammar alone is sufficient to reveal this horrifying conclusion: If the Father fails to draw someone, it remains impossible for that person to come to Christ.

Theologically, then, it is inconceivable that the Father's drawing could fail.
 
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Dikaioumenoi

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And He wants all to repent, none to perish.2 Pet 3:9
Who is Peter addressing? "The beloved" (v. 1), whom he specifically contrasts with "the scoffers" (v. 3). When he says, "God is being patient toward you," the pronoun "you" (vv. 1-2, 8-9) is contextually distinct from "them" (3-5). The patience he describes is for the purpose of granting time for repentance, but that patience is directed specifically to "you" (μακροθυμεῖ εἰς ὑμᾶς), not to all humanity indiscriminately.

If God's patience were truly universal, one could question why Christ would ever return, since greater patience could always save more. But if the patience is directed to the elect scattered abroad ("you," "the beloved"), then the timing of His return is coherent: it occurs as soon as the last of the elect come to faith, fulfilling the purpose of that patience.

πᾶς ("all") and τὶς ("anyone") carry semantic range that must be interpreted by context. The Greek does not automatically imply every individual without exception; rather, these terms indicate the full scope of a defined group. In 2 Pet. 3:9, they are applied to those already addressed as "the beloved," not to the scoffers. μακροθυμεῖ ("he is patient") is directed εἰς ὑμᾶς ("toward you"), with the participle μὴ βουλόμενός ("not wishing") modifying that patience, and everything following it functioning as the object of his willing. In this context, τινας and πάντας are therefore understood as referring specifically to members of the beloved group (i.e., any and all of them), the scope of God's patience, not to every individual universally.
 
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fhansen

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Who is Peter addressing? "The beloved" (v. 1), whom he specifically contrasts with "the scoffers" (v. 3). When he says, "God is being patient toward you," the pronoun "you" (vv. 1-2, 8-9) is contextually distinct from "them" (3-5). The patience he describes is for the purpose of granting time for repentance, but that patience is directed specifically to "you" (μακροθυμεῖ εἰς ὑμᾶς), not to all humanity indiscriminately.

If God's patience were truly universal, one could question why Christ would ever return, since greater patience could always save more.
And why would God need to be patient with anyone and with what they may do if He's already predetermined that they'll come. The truth is that you don't even know with 100% certainty that the "you" here, the beloved, is speaking of you. Or that you'll necessarily persevere. That's a subjective opinion, a status people appropriate for themselves.

According to Scripture not all will be saved, so apparently patience doesn't guarantee that the person will repent. God knows at what point a person is no longer salvageable.
 
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fhansen

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God's purpose will prevail, and you say it won't. Is man greater than God?
Who said that? God calls the shots-and if He wants you to play a part in choosing your final destiny, in choosing good over evil, life over death, that's up to Him, not you or me. To put it anotherc way, when Christianity is well understood we know that love is both a gift, and a choice, and one that we're obliged to make and to live by, now bound to and remaining in the very Source of that love.
 
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Brightfame52

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Who said that? God calls the shots-and if He wants you to play a part in choosing your final destiny, in choosing good over evil, life over death, that's up to Him, not you or me. To put it another, when Christianity is well understood we know that love is a both a gift, and a choice, and one that we're obliged to make and to live by, now bound to and remaining in the very Source of that love.
Do you realize that you are in opposition to the saving death of Christ?
 
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fhansen

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Do you realize that you are in opposition to the saving death of Christ?
I know that I'm consistent with His gospel as received, understood, and taught by His church for the last 2+ millenia and supported by Scripture. And that if you don't understand the last sentence of my post that you've replied to here then you have a ways to go in scraping the surface of the Christian faith.
 
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fhansen

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What I'm trying to point out to you is that your understanding of ἑλκύω necessitates that God does not necessarily make it possible. That is the implication of what you are saying, whether intended or not. What is the verb in John 6:44 that ἑλκύω conceptually modifies? δύναται, "is able." The drawing act of the Father is an act of moving the recipient from the state of "unable" to the state of "able." So if you say that this drawing can fail, what you are saying is that there is no guarantee that the Father succeeds in making it possible for people to come to Him.
If the drawing can fail it's only because while God makes it possible for people to come to Him, He leaves it up to them to assent, or not.
So when you suggest that ἑλκύω itself is not guaranteed to succeed, what you're implying is that God can attempt to make it possible for someone to come to Him, but there is no guarantee that attempt will succeed, that is, in making it possible.
Not so. That's like saying I can give all the advantages to my child that pertain to acheiving a good life: good role models, recreation, socializing, religious and secular education, access to the greatest higher education with tuition and boarding paid, etc,- but if they then proceed to fail in life I'd be accused of not making it possible for them to have succeeded?!
It does not hurt your position in any way, in other words, to agree with me that ἑλκύω refers to a decisive movement from one position to another. That is not where the argument for irresistibility lies in the verse. The argument that the drawing (enabling) of the Father leads irresistibly to faith in Christ is a grammatical one, focused on the identity of αὐτόν ("him") grammatically uniting the actions of "draws" and "raised up."
1) The elect will be drawn, of course
2) The elect will come, of course
3) The elect wil be raised up, of course.

Does that mean that all who are drawn will necessarily come? Or that all who come will necessarily remain? No and no.
 
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Dikaioumenoi

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And why would God need to be patient with anyone and with what they may do if He's already predetermined that they'll come.
Because God's decree does not eliminate means; it establishes them. His patience is not uncertainty about the outcome; it's the ordained space in which the elect are brought to repentance according to His timing.

If the drawing can fail it's only because while God makes it possible for people to come to Him, He leaves it up to them to assent, or not.
You're still missing the point. In John 6:44, ἑλκύω modifies δύναται ("is able"), not ἐλθεῖν. The Father's drawing is what effects the ability to come. If the drawing were to fail, God hasn't made it possible. That is precisely what the drawing does: it makes coming to Christ possible.

Not so. That's like saying I can give...
Again, you're not paying attention to what the argument is. Your analogy assumes God has already given something. The text says the Father's drawing enables coming: "No one can come to me unless the Father draws them." That drawing is what makes coming possible. So if someone can come, they have been drawn.

How, then, can it makes sense to say it is possible for someone to come, yet the Father's drawing -- the very act that makes it possible -- also fail?

You're wanting to jump ahead and say the Father's drawing doesn't necessitate that people will actually come to Christ. But that's not what we're disputing at this point. What we're concerned with at the moment is that the drawing is an enabling act of the Father that makes salvation possible. So if ἑλκύω can fail, salvation is not obtainable. The argument that the Father's enabling (drawing) activity does bring people effectually to Christ is a different point made from the grammar of the verse, not the meaning of ἑλκύω itself.

1) The elect will be drawn, of course
2) The elect will come, of course
3) The elect wil be raised up, of course.

Does that mean that all who are drawn will necessarily come? Or that all who come will necessarily remain? No and no.
Yes, it does. But not for any reason discussed above. What necessitates the conclusion that all who are drawn (i.e., all who are enabled) will come and be raised is that the grammar of the verse identifies the same individual in both clauses. The "him" who is drawn is the same "him" who will be raised:

οὐδεὶς δύναται ἐλθεῖν πρός με ἐὰν μὴ ὁ πατὴρ ὁ πέμψας με ἑλκύσῃ αὐτόν, κἀγὼ ἀναστήσω αὐτὸν ἐν τῇ ἐσχάτῃ ἡμέρᾳ

This becomes even clearer when phrased contrapositively:

"If he is able to come to me, then the Father has drawn him, and I will raise him up on the last day."

Who will be raised up on the last day? The one who is drawn/enabled. There is no distinction or separate category; the drawing guarantees coming and final resurrection.
 
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