WE ARE AT WAR! Trump approves military action against Latin American cartels classified as terrorist organizations.

Oompa Loompa said:

Nope. Show me in the autopsy that Floyd's death was a result of police intervention. Please! Prove me wrong! Have you even looked at the Toxicology report in paragraph VI?

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The first line… “cardiopulmonary arrest complicating law enforcement subdual, restraint and neck compression.”

I looked at the toxicology report… In fact, I used to read autopsy reports daily for work and thus am super, super familiar with them. In fact, I trained people on how to read autopsy reports in not one but two jobs; one at a police/911 dispatch center, the other for an aeromedical transport through a level one trauma center. Ready to get schooled?

His Fentanyl is listed as 11, which to people who don’t read autopsies regularly had them all grasping at their pearls, but then you read the rest of the report. It also states in the reference section: “it is reported that patients lost consciousness at mean plasma levels of fentanyl of 34 ng/mL when infused with 75 mcg/Kg over a 15 min period; peak plasma levels averaged 50 ng/mL” and that in cases of poisoning or non regular users, they may have a reaction at as low as 3 ng/mL. So, for this test, if you have somebody who died with only 3ng/mL, acute poisoning is the suspected cause (either it’s tainted, mis-processed, or they’re basically allergic to it) depending on their norfent score. In all others, acute overdose symptoms start at 34 ng/mL and tend to reach near-universal mortality at 50 ng/mL.

He was at an 11. Well under acute overdose and well over tainted/poisoning, especially given his norf score of 5.6. If he had a 5.6 and a 3, it would be a poisoning/OD. Otherwise the OD symptoms on this test begin at 34 and max out to near 100% death at north of 50.

In short, he had fentanyl in his system, enough for a mild buzz and moderate impairment, not enough for death. He either took a small dose recently (unlikely given it was in his urine as well) or he’d taken a larger dose… I’m doing rough math here, but it seems… Maybe 8 to 14ish hours prior…? The math portion to figure toxicity decline was never my thing… I had an Excel for that. His Methamphetamine score was a 19 which is a complete and total nothingburger. Not even enough to contribute to a buzz, looking at the test thresholds that say 200-600 is where impairment begins and toxicity is above 600. It just means he used at some point… And not even particularly recently.

Hence what three doctors testified in court, that they weren’t even secondary or third contributing factors. Primary was choking, secondary was heart/cardiac issues related to a pre-existing condition (one he may not have known he had? It’s unclear), third is anemia (also seems he didn’t know he had it). Other factors included COVID and drugs that impaired decision making and above legal levels, but well short of toxicity.

NxNW said:

I wonder why he hasn't been charged with purjury.

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He because he didn’t perjure himself. Bro Oompa just doesn’t know how to read autopsy reports, lol.

Oompa Loompa said:

You are not looking at the official autopsy .
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I am looking at the link you gave me, darling. Do you not know what it says? LoL! Let me help you out. That’s screencap is part 6 of summation on a 20 page document. The first line in the header on page one lists “cardiopulmonary arrest complicating law enforcement subdual, restraint and neck compression.”

And you can keep posting the tox summation, but that doesn’t refute that the standard for acute intoxication/OD threshold for the test they administered is 34 with increasing morbidity to a max 50. He’s a 11, well under that threshold. The meth tox was 19, significantly below impairment levels and extremely significantly below OD levels. A fact the doctor reiterated 4 times under oath and the defense’s own doctor conceded twice.

“It’s what I put on the death certificate last June: It’s cardiopulmonary arrest complicating law enforcement subdual restraint and neck compression. That was my top line then, it would stay my top line now. I would still classify it as a homicide today.”

You’re parroting a debunked video from another person who doesn’t know how to read an autopsy report:


The fact is you got snookered by a doctored video and a complete inability to read and understand an autopsy report. The basic fact is that if the autopsy, any of the three that were ordered, came back as an OD then the state would have been unable to file charges against the officers who killed him. Your claim doesn’t even make sense.

Oompa Loompa said:

Okay "Darling," you mean page 20 which is an "Analysis Summary of Reporting Limits?" Try again.

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Why is this still a point of discussion? Didn't they ask the medical examiner directly at the trial? If I remember correctly the answer support that the ME usually put the conclusion in the title, did it not? Just like @Tropical Wilds says.

Oompa Loompa said:

Okay "Darling," you mean page 20 which is an "Analysis Summary of Reporting Limits?" Try again.

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No, I don’t mean page 20, I mean page 14 though page 19… Did you read the autopsy before you posted it?

Analysis Summary of Reporting Limits is the declaration of the minimum threshold for detectability in the bloodstream. Usually it appears on the page before the results or the page after, or the page after references and waypoints.

Detection for fentanyl it’s usually somewhere between .05 and .10, sometimes as high as .70 or .80 depending on what type they’re testing for and method of extraction and detection in the samples. I’m sure it’s declared on the sheet, but I’m not clicking back to that link for the billionth time for such ancillary information. If it’s .05 or .80, it’s a negligible difference in a reporting minimum when the result was 11. It matters more for the methamphetamine because 19 is so, so low, but even then I think the minimum for meth is something like a 2.0 or 5.0, though maybe lower now that they are better able to isolate strains and it seems likely they’d have sprung for the best available testing in this scenario. Generally tests for lower profile, non-suspicious (meaning non homicide/murder/suicide), they just do enough to differentiate between methamphetamine positive and methadone positive.

I’m sure that’s all in there, but I’m not reading it for the billionth time to sus it out since it doesn’t matter… The levels are clearly higher than margin-of-error false positives, but low enough to not be OD and the rest of it makes pretty darn clear the method of death, top contributing factors, and designation as a homicide.

And, of course, the fact that people were charged and found guilty shows the autopsy finding of homicide must have been accepted by the state. One can’t be charged in a crime of murder and/or aiding and abetting murder, much less convicted, if the autopsy concluded it was an OD and no untimely externally provoked death occurred. That’s silly to even try to claim.

Stopped_lurking said:

Why is this still a point of discussion? Didn't they ask the medical examiner directly at the trial? If I remember correctly the answer support that the ME usually put the conclusion in the title, did it not? Just like @Tropical Wilds says.

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Why yes, they did ask. In fact, the defense conceded that point. Twice. I linked the transcript somewhere above where the defense’s own doctor said that the kneeling was the main cause of death but felt that Floyd’s drug use made the drugs the second contributing factor and that he died earlier than was declared by prosecution, presumably to coax a manslaughter conviction over a murder. The doctor conceded that with somebody kneeling for 9.5 minutes on anybody’s neck would result in death. He just stated a seizure Floyd had was the point of death and said seizure was caused by the drugs, but the ultimate death was from “constricted breathing.”

The whole premise of Oompa’s claims are ridiculous and I’m not sure what he’s hoping to gain by persisting in it, nor do I have any idea what that has to do with deportation or immigration.