RandyPNW
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- Jun 8, 2021
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This seems like the default position for those who do not wish to face how Paul used the word "Israel." I do not wish to be rude--this is just how I've observed these kinds of arguments.Actually this is what Paul states in Ro 11:16-23: that
God has only one tree (composed of his people),
unbelieving Israel has been cut off the one tree of God's people,
believing Gentiles were grafted into their place in the one tree of God's people, and
Israel will be "grafted back into the one tree of God's people IF (not "when") they do not persist in unbellief." (Ro 11:23)
Israel's destiny is to be grafted back into the one olive tree of God's people (the church of the OT and NT saints, Ac 7:38), IF they do not persist in unbelief (Ro 11:23). As long as they are in unbelief and cut off the one tree, they are not God's people.
Israel has no other destiny.
Paul positively did *not* use the word for anything other than the literal nation. That was my point. He did not use the word "Israel" metaphorically to apply to the international Church. That would be utterly confusing, which is why we're even having this conversation.
But to bring up a metaphorical "tree" just shows once again how this argument can get all mixed up in the use of metaphors. Paul did not say the "tree" was Israel.
The "tree," assumably, is the natural constitution of faith in people, whether individuals like Abraham, or a nation like Israel. Those "grafted on" were not originally part of this natural constitution.
Again, we're talking about how Paul used the word "Israel," whether "True Israel" or "Faithless Israel." It was always the same literal nation of Israel that he referred to. To admit the term can be "True" or "Faithless" just describes how Hosea saw literal Israel, as either True to God or Faithless under their Covenant with God.
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