Job 33:6
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I think we need to be precise about the language Scripture uses when discussing the sacrificial system. Yes, sacrifices had a real effect in the covenantal relationship between Israel and God, but that effect was provisional, not ultimate.No, the sacrifices actually effected the covering of Israel's sin from the wrath of God (Ro 4:7), as a type of
Christ, who removed (true) Israel's sin and the wrath of God
Baptims is not a means by which we enter into a vital relationship with Christ, by which we are united with Christ.
In NT times baptism so closely followed conversion that the two were considered part of one event (Ac 2:38).
But while baptism is closely associated with faith, it is not a means by which we enter into a vital relationship with Christ.
It depicts graphically what happens as a result of the believer's union with Christ, which comes with faith; i.e., through faith we are united with Christ, just as through our actual birth we are united with Adam. As we became subject to death in father Adam, so now we have died and been raised again with Christ--which baptism symbolizes, it does not effect.
No, the Lord's Supper was the Passover meal in which they partook of the benefits of the sacrifice,
just as they did in other sacrificial meals (Lev 3:15, 7:15-18, 19:5-8) .
You've turned the world upside down. . .reality is based on symbol.
Reality is not based on symbol, reality is based on fact.
It is symbol that is based on the fact of reality, in both the physical order and the spiritual order.
Agreed. . .Adam is also functioning as an archetype, in addition to being the first actual man.
Why the need to deny the reality of what Scriture presents as reality?
I say the terms of the text present the text as reality, which for some reason you need to deny.
The sacrifices did cover sin (as you rightly point to in places like Psalm 32:1, cited in Romans 4:7), but even the Old Testament is clear that these sacrifices could not remove sin in a final sense. Hebrews 10:4 says explicitly:
“For it is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sins.”
And Hebrews 10:1 clarifies further that the law and its sacrifices were a shadow of the good things to come, not the realities themselves.
So, yes, they had a covenantal function. But they were types, symbolic acts that pointed beyond themselves to the true sacrifice, Jesus. And when Christ came, He didn’t just cover sin temporarily, He took it away.
In that light, the distinction between symbolic and effectual isn’t as rigid as you’re implying. Symbols in Scripture, especially types instituted by God, are deeply effectual because they point to and are fulfilled by real divine action.
A type is not "ineffectual" just because it isn’t literal in the modern empirical sense. It's effectual because it’s part of God’s revelatory work, designed to prepare us for the ultimate reality in Christ.
Also, it’s true that the Lord’s Supper has roots in the Passover and that in both, participants symbolically partake in the benefits of sacrifice. But there’s a crucial distinction.
The sacrificial meals in Leviticus (such as peace offerings) were part of a covenant system pointing forward to something greater. They provided covenantal participation, not final atonement. Similarly, the Passover meal reminded Israel of God's deliverance, but it did not itself forgive sins, it commemorated an act of salvation.
The Lord’s Supper, instituted by Jesus at the Passover, reinterprets that tradition in light of His own sacrificial death. He says, “This is my body… This is my blood of the covenant, poured out for many” (Mark 14:22–24). The emphasis is not on merely eating a symbolic meal, but on participating in the benefits of His once-for-all sacrifice (Hebrews 10:10).
So yes, there’s continuity with Old Testament sacrificial meals, but also escalation and fulfillment. The Lord’s Supper doesn’t repeat a sacrifice, nor does it function like the Levitical system. It proclaims the Lord’s death (1 Cor. 11:26) and draws us into communion with His once-for-all atonement.
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