There are two different usages of the word LAW, between 1 Corinthians 9:20 and 1 Corinthians 9:21
Actually, without trying to interrupt the thread, a quick read of the text shows Paul using
five Greek terms translated as "law" or "the law".
Here are the actual texts and the terms under consideration:
1Co 9:20 καὶ ἐγενόμην τοῖς ᾿Ιουδαίοις ὡς ᾿Ιουδαῖος, ἵνα ᾿Ιουδαίους κερδήσω· τοῖς ὑπὸ νόμον ὡς ὑπὸ νόμον, ἵνα τοὺς ὑπὸ νόμον κερδήσω·
1Co 9:21 τοῖς ἀνόμοις ὡς ἄνομος, μὴ ὢν ἄνομος Θεῷ, ἀλλ᾿ ἔννομος Χριστῷ, ἵνα κερδήσω ἀνόμους·
The five Greek terms, in order of occurrence, are:
1.
νόμον (three times in 1Co 9:20, each time without the article)
2.
ἀνόμοις (once in 1Co 9:21, without the article)
3.
ἄνομος (twice in 1Co 9:21, each time without the article)
4.
ἔννομος (once in 1Co 9:21, without the article)
5.
ἀνόμους (once in 1Co 9:21, without the article)
If we examine each of the terms used, we find the following:
1. νόμον: a noun that means (within NT usage) "law".
2. ἀνόμοις: an adjective used in the dative case (ie: to/at) that means "lawless".
3. ἄνομος: an adjective used in the nominative case (ie: subject) that means "lawless".
4. ἔννομος: an adjective used in the nominative case that means "lawful or statutory".
5. ἀνόμους: an adjective in the accusative case (ie: motion towards) that means "lawless".
Also of particular note: English translations will often insert the definite article ("the") where no article is actually used in the Greek text. This has the unfortunate result of needlessly obfuscating scripture through the use of the "
my way or the highway" translation approach. The scriptural "
highway" being preferable to the "
my way" translations.
Although lack of the article in the Greek text does not necessarily imply indefinite usage of a term, inserting the article dogmatically or doing so for doctrinal purposes is really unwarranted. Contextually, there should be strong evidence or at the very least a grammatical need by the target language for using articles where none are found.
The same can be said of the OP text in Gal 5:18, shown here:
Gal 5:18 εἰ δὲ πνευματι ἄγεσθε, οὐκ ἐστὲ ὑπὸ νόμον.
Here, there is no article being used with "πνευματι" or "νόμον".
It's not "the Spirit" (ie: the "Holy Spirit" or perhaps the "Spirit" of Christ) but rather simply "spirit" (ie: "breath" of God that animates all living beings, Gen 2:7).
Likewise, within the second clause, it's not "the Law" (the Law of Moses perhaps ?), but rather simply "law", law being contextually undefined and to be interpreted accordingly by the reader.
With that understanding, Gal 5:18 reads: "and if by spirit you are led, you are not under law". This reading, which I believe is the correct reading of the text, presents a much different understanding of what Paul wrote.
Anyway, back to the thread...
