Pordoning the woman in adultery

jonojim1337 · May 26, 2024

So we know that Jesus came with an interpretation of the law unbeknownst to the Jews. Being fallen ourselves, we of course should not judge others.

Of course, that could have been said from the beginning. But it was not so. Instead it was said that marriage is a contract only exited through death, because of the blood.

That being said, there were many prostitutes in the old days. One helped the prophet and was blessed, and another bore children to Judah.

I don't understand. How were they even alive? And why give such a commandment, and not uphold it?

HTacianas · May 26, 2024

jonojim1337 said:
So we know that Jesus came with an interpretation of the law unbeknownst to the Jews. Being fallen ourselves, we of course should not judge others.

Of course, that could have been said from the beginning. But it was not so. Instead it was said that marriage is a contract only exited through death, because of the blood.

That being said, there were many prostitutes in the old days. One helped the prophet and was blessed, and another bore children to Judah.

I don't understand. How were they even alive? And why give such a commandment, and not uphold it?

I think what you're looking for is the difference between adultery and simple sexual immorality. Adultery has always been literally carved in stone. Adultery being sexual relations between a man and another man's wife. It was punishable by death in the old testament and carried over into Christianity as a mortal sin. It was nearly always grounds for excommunication until that was changed with Calixtus I of Rome and the idea of penance for sins committed after baptism became the norm.

Other forms of sexual immorality, that being sexual relations between unmarried people, has always been a slightly grey area. In both the old covenant law and Christianity as well. Sexual immorality carried with it a lighter penance than adultery and some other forms of sexual misconduct. As to the woman Jesus pardoned for adultery, that is what he did with everyone. Their sins were forgiven and the were told to "go and sin no more".

jonojim1337 · May 26, 2024

HTacianas said:
I think what you're looking for is the difference between adultery and simple sexual immorality. Adultery has always been literally carved in stone. Adultery being sexual relations between a man and another man's wife. It was punishable by death in the old testament and carried over into Christianity as a mortal sin. It was nearly always grounds for excommunication until that was changed with Calixtus I of Rome and the idea of penance for sins committed after baptism became the norm.

Adultery is breaking the marriage bond, and because it is a blood contract by nature, at least interpreted as such by the law, the punishment is of course death otherwise "marriage" does not exist at all. However it is not possible to fornicate or prostitute a daughter of Israel, since she is married by that first encounter. But the Law is peculiar in that it allows a widow to remarry. That makes no sense at all. Only that the husband paid the price, thus relieving her of bondage, foreshadowing Christ.

I could interpret as, the Israelites were supposed to be a holy people set apart from the others. Therefore a foreign woman could receive mercy in this area, but not an Israelite. Am I right?

I don't even understand how foreign prostitues were able to set their foot on the land.

HTacianas said:
Other forms of sexual immorality, that being sexual relations between unmarried people, has always been a slightly grey area. In both the old covenant law and Christianity as well. Sexual immorality carried with it a lighter penance than adultery and some other forms of sexual misconduct. As to the woman Jesus pardoned for adultery, that is what he did with everyone. Their sins were forgiven and the were told to "go and sin no more".

Jesus said that a marriage cannot be broken, only in the case of adultery. And by the same token, neither can you get into marriage, except through the blood. Otherwise he would have said, you may fornicate as much as you want, as long as you have the blessing of a priest

The pardoning of the woman was first and foremost, because those accusing her, could not stand up to their own shame. It was indeed a miracle in the hearts of these men. But who can blame them, being it, that the Law is as it is?

Which begs the question, if stoning for adultery is not part of the image of God, why was it prescribed?

HTacianas · May 26, 2024

jonojim1337 said:
Adultery is breaking the marriage bond, and because it is a blood contract by nature, at least interpreted as such by the law, the punishment is of course death otherwise "marriage" does not exist at all. However it is not possible to fornicate or prostitute a daughter of Israel, since she is married by that first encounter. But the Law is peculiar in that it allows a widow to remarry. That makes no sense at all. Only that the husband paid the price, thus relieving her of bondage, foreshadowing Christ.

I could interpret as, the Israelites were supposed to be a holy people set apart from the others. Therefore a foreign woman could receive mercy in this area, but not an Israelite. Am I right?

I don't even understand how foreign prostitues were able to set their foot on the land.

Jesus said that a marriage cannot be broken, only in the case of adultery. And by the same token, neither can you get into marriage, except through the blood. Otherwise he would have said, you may fornicate as much as you want, as long as you have the blessing of a priest

The pardoning of the woman was first and foremost, because those accusing her, could not stand up to their own shame. It was indeed a miracle in the hearts of these men. But who can blame them, being it, that the Law is as it is?

Which begs the question, if stoning for adultery is not part of the image of God, why was it prescribed?

Your question is based on a faulty premise, that being "stoning...is not part of the image of god". The death penalty was prescribed for certain sins. Stoning was simply the way of carrying it out.

jonojim1337 · May 26, 2024

HTacianas said:
Your question is based on a faulty premise, that being "stoning...is not part of the image of god". The death penalty was prescribed for certain sins. Stoning was simply the way of carrying it out.

I thought you were going to say that Christ forgave her because of his mercy, but nay?

HTacianas · May 26, 2024

jonojim1337 said:
I thought you were going to say that Christ forgave her because of his mercy, but nay?

That was his mission. To call sinners to repentance. If one agrees to repent and turn from their sins all of their previous sins were pardoned. They were then charged to go and sin no more.

jonojim1337 · May 26, 2024

HTacianas said:
That was his mission. To call sinners to repentance. If one agrees to repent and turn from their sins all of their previous sins were pardoned. They were then charged to go and sin no more.

Hold it buddy. You have to understand the context where he was saying it. Not stoning her would mean not following the Law. So how can anyone say such a thing to a Jew who doesn't know Christ?

jonojim1337 · May 26, 2024

Notice also, he didn't say, neither do I judge you, because I have taken the punishment for your sin, or because, I am here now and your law is pointless, but simply because it was his character to do so.

Now of course I could take it to mean, that the people who preoccupied themselves with such aspects of the law, maybe overlooked other more important aspects, and that this was by design.

But then again, even if the simple minded are led astray by design, why cause yourself this trouble?

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Pordoning the woman in adultery

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