The Congress recently voted (along party lines, of course) to open an official impeachment inquiry into Joe Biden. I know that this post is in the politics category but I don't wish to make it a partisan political discussion but rather a constitutional one about the process itself. It should not be a partisan issue as while it affects one party at the moment the precedent it sets may affect political figures on both sides of the aisle for generations to come.
This is uncharted territory and a true precedent. First of note is that they are not calling it an "Impeachment Investigation" but rather a "inquiry". There have been 6 impeachment investigations against 4 different Presidents. Those investigations have led to 4 impeachments, 1 for Andrew Johnson, 1 for Bill Clinton and 2 for Donald Trump. Andrew Johnson had one investigation that did not lead to impeachment and a second which did and James Buchanan had an investigation which did not lead to impeachment. So, what is so different this time? It's all in the reason it's an inquiry.
In every impeachment investigation to date, it was an investigation into credible evidence of alleged acts. In the case of Johnson, it was a direct violation of the 'Tenure of Office Act" over illegally firing the Secretary of War and appointing a interim one without congressional approval. And a second one for a violation of the "Command of Army Act". Clinton was accused of lying under oath when testifying about the Monica Lewinsky scandal. Donald Trump's first impeachment was on 2 charges. The first was "Abuse of power by "pressuring Ukraine to investigate his political rivals ahead of the 2020 election while withholding a White House meeting and $400 million in U.S. security aid from Kyiv." The second was "Obstruction of Congress by directing defiance of subpoenas issued by the House and ordering officials to refuse to testify." His second impeachment, of course was based on several acts he engaged in relating to the Jan 6 riots. Note the one thing that all these had in common. The investigation was into an identified act that the President had done. It was simply a matter of whether that act rose to the level of warranting impeachment. The difference this time is that while the House has spent the last 3 months investigating to see if they can find anything on the President and to date has alleged no act that might warrant impeachment. They simply opened an "impeachment inquiry" to see if they can't find an act that they haven't yet found, all with no evidence that such act even exists.
If you think of the Congressional Impeachment process as the court of law for federal employees, then this is analogous to a court saying, I think we'll hold a preliminary hearing to determine if you might have committed a crime even though there's no evidence you have and no one has credible assertions that you have. What are the implications for such a precedent? My research indicates this is the first time an American citizen has had a formal inquiry from a law enforcement agency or congress into whether they committed a crime with no evidence and even no credible allegation that they have done anything wrong. Is this precedent dangerous? Any thoughts on the future implications?
This is uncharted territory and a true precedent. First of note is that they are not calling it an "Impeachment Investigation" but rather a "inquiry". There have been 6 impeachment investigations against 4 different Presidents. Those investigations have led to 4 impeachments, 1 for Andrew Johnson, 1 for Bill Clinton and 2 for Donald Trump. Andrew Johnson had one investigation that did not lead to impeachment and a second which did and James Buchanan had an investigation which did not lead to impeachment. So, what is so different this time? It's all in the reason it's an inquiry.
In every impeachment investigation to date, it was an investigation into credible evidence of alleged acts. In the case of Johnson, it was a direct violation of the 'Tenure of Office Act" over illegally firing the Secretary of War and appointing a interim one without congressional approval. And a second one for a violation of the "Command of Army Act". Clinton was accused of lying under oath when testifying about the Monica Lewinsky scandal. Donald Trump's first impeachment was on 2 charges. The first was "Abuse of power by "pressuring Ukraine to investigate his political rivals ahead of the 2020 election while withholding a White House meeting and $400 million in U.S. security aid from Kyiv." The second was "Obstruction of Congress by directing defiance of subpoenas issued by the House and ordering officials to refuse to testify." His second impeachment, of course was based on several acts he engaged in relating to the Jan 6 riots. Note the one thing that all these had in common. The investigation was into an identified act that the President had done. It was simply a matter of whether that act rose to the level of warranting impeachment. The difference this time is that while the House has spent the last 3 months investigating to see if they can find anything on the President and to date has alleged no act that might warrant impeachment. They simply opened an "impeachment inquiry" to see if they can't find an act that they haven't yet found, all with no evidence that such act even exists.
If you think of the Congressional Impeachment process as the court of law for federal employees, then this is analogous to a court saying, I think we'll hold a preliminary hearing to determine if you might have committed a crime even though there's no evidence you have and no one has credible assertions that you have. What are the implications for such a precedent? My research indicates this is the first time an American citizen has had a formal inquiry from a law enforcement agency or congress into whether they committed a crime with no evidence and even no credible allegation that they have done anything wrong. Is this precedent dangerous? Any thoughts on the future implications?