Revelation 16:19 is not a burning, but a destruction by hail and earthquake.
Revelation 16:21 And there fell upon men a great hail out of heaven, every stone about the weight of a talent: and men blasphemed God because of the plague of the hail; for the plague thereof was exceeding great.
What happens if we compare with Ezekiel 38?
Ezekiel 38:22 And I will plead against him with pestilence and with blood; and I will rain upon him, and upon his bands, and upon the many people that are with him, an overflowing rain, and great hailstones, fire, and brimstone.
I don't know why great hailstones might not be describing a great hail out of heaven, every stone about the weight of a talent? Therefore, both of these accounts at least have that in common, these great hailstones. Even though the former makes no mention of fire, the latter does---fire, and brimstone.
It does not remotely seem reasonable that if these events recorded in these two accounts are involving the final days of this age, that one account is meaning years earlier than that of the other account. If the account recorded in the latter account happens first, years ealier, why then does what is recorded in the former account need to happen years later? The former account indicates that men blasphemed God because of the plague of the hail; for the plague thereof was exceeding great. While the latter account makes no mention of that. But even so, if they are getting bombarded with an overflowing rain, and great hailstones, is it then logical that they wouldn't be blaspheming God because of the plague of the hail? Of course that is not logical, which then is something else both these accounts have in common, they are blaspheming God because of this great hail, regardless that the latter neglects to mention it.
As to an earthquake in regards to Ezekiel 38:22, we already know it obviously involves an earthquake like no other, that it trumps any earthquakes in the past in comparison, in light of the following.
Ezekiel 38:19 For in my jealousy and in the fire of my wrath have I spoken, Surely in that day
there shall be a great shaking in the land of Israel;
20 So that the fishes of the sea, and the fowls of the heaven, and the beasts of the field, and all creeping things that creep upon the earth, and all the men that are upon the face of the earth,
shall shake at my presence, and the mountains shall be thrown down, and the steep places shall fall, and every wall shall fall to the ground.
According to this it is His presence that is causing this. Is not the 7th vial also involving His presence? His presence could mean in the sense, as in, per the time when He was overthrowing Sodom and Gomorrah. Or it could mean in the sense, as in, He has literally bodily returned, meaning His 2nd coming. IOW, it is His presence being why the following in Revelation 16:18 is saying what is says---and there was a great earthquake, such as was not since men were upon the earth, so mighty an earthquake, and so great.