He was protecting her from persecution. Imagine if His enemies got wind of the virgin birth?As far as I can remember there are only two times when Jesus was directly confronted with some form of "blessed be your Mother", "Blessed be Mary", "here is your mother - show her honor" as reported by the NT writers.
In the one case His response begins with "on the contrary"
In the other case He spins the statement around to a question "who IS My mother?"
Luke 11:
27 While Jesus was saying these things, one of the women in the crowd raised her voice and said to Him, “Blessed is the womb that bore You and the breasts at which You nursed.”
28 But He said, “On the contrary, blessed are those who hear the word of God and observe it.”
Matt 12
46 While He was still speaking to the crowds, behold, His mother and brothers were standing outside, seeking to speak to Him. 47 [Someone said to Him, “Look, Your mother and Your brothers are standing outside, seeking to speak to You.”] 48 But Jesus replied to the one who was telling Him and said, “Who is My mother, and who are My brothers?” 49 And extending His hand toward His disciples, He said, “Behold: My mother and My brothers! 50 For whoever does the will of My Father who is in heaven, he is My brother, and sister, and mother.”
Which makes the "top" honor - someone Jesus came to save and as a person who accepts that salvation (which would include Mary).
====================
Surely He loved Mary as a child of God and as one blessed to give birth to the Messiah - but it is odd that his response to these two chances for respect "as my mother" - that these are in fact the two responses "He chose", if indeed He was trying to promote "Mary, is the mother of God" doctrine.
What I keep wondering is why y'all care what Catholics, Eastern Orthodox and Oriental Orthodox do to honor Mary and the saints?
I think you have some misunderstanding. We know according to the Bible that all generations are to call Mary blessed. Why is she blessed, or most blessed? What is Jesus saying?As far as I can remember there are only two times when Jesus was directly confronted with some form of "blessed be your Mother", "Blessed be Mary", "here is your mother - show her honor" as reported by the NT writers.
In the one case His response begins with "on the contrary"
In the other case He spins the statement around to a question "who IS My mother?"
Luke 11:
27 While Jesus was saying these things, one of the women in the crowd raised her voice and said to Him, “Blessed is the womb that bore You and the breasts at which You nursed.”
28 But He said, “On the contrary, blessed are those who hear the word of God and observe it.”
Matt 12
46 While He was still speaking to the crowds, behold, His mother and brothers were standing outside, seeking to speak to Him. 47 [Someone said to Him, “Look, Your mother and Your brothers are standing outside, seeking to speak to You.”] 48 But Jesus replied to the one who was telling Him and said, “Who is My mother, and who are My brothers?” 49 And extending His hand toward His disciples, He said, “Behold: My mother and My brothers! 50 For whoever does the will of My Father who is in heaven, he is My brother, and sister, and mother.”
Which makes the "top" honor - someone Jesus came to save and as a person who accepts that salvation (which would include Mary).
====================
Surely He loved Mary as a child of God and as one blessed to give birth to the Messiah - but it is odd that his response to these two chances for respect "as my mother" - that these are in fact the two responses "He chose", if indeed He was trying to promote "Mary, is the mother of God" doctrine.
Those are English words, perhaps the words fall short, but there is no exact translation. The Koine Greek root word "charis" means "grace," study the modifiers and usage of "charis." It is used by the Angel in the manner of a title, it is a grace that was imbued in Mary in the past, a full and everlasting grace.Oh come on now...
Isn't "full of grace" a Latin addition to what the Greek Text actually says. Or does tradition take priority?
I think you have some misunderstanding. We know according to the Bible that all generations are to call Mary blessed. Why is she blessed, or most blessed? What is Jesus saying?
Oh come on now...
Isn't "full of grace" a Latin addition to what the Greek Text actually says. Or does tradition take priority?
The title Theotokos - or “Mother of God” or “God-bearer” is not just a title of reverence - but rather is a theological statement. At the Council of Ephesus in 431, the bishops denounced Nestorianism, which claimed that Christ’s human and divine natures were separate. Therefore, they believed that Mary was only the mother of the human Christ, not of the divine Christ....if indeed He was trying to promote "Mary, is the mother of God" doctrine.
Those are English words, perhaps the words fall short, but there is no exact translation. The Koine Greek root word "charis" means "grace," study the modifiers and usage of "charis." It is used by the Angel in the manner of a title, it is a grace that was imbued in Mary in the past, a full and everlasting grace.
Are you talking about Stephen - the deacon?
Acts 7
55 But he, being full of the Holy Spirit, looked intently into heaven and saw the glory of God, and Jesus standing at the right hand of God;
The only time "full of grace" is clearly used, it is used of Jesus Christ in John 1:14.
In Acts 6:8 there is a textual variant. Some Greek manuscript evidence says Stephen was "full of grace" when he witnessed just before he was killed
The title Theotokos - or “Mother of God” or “God-bearer” is not just a title of reverence - but rather is a theological statement. .
The title Theotokos - or “Mother of God” or “God-bearer” is not just a title of reverence - but rather is a theological statement. At the Council of Ephesus in 431, the bishops denounced Nestorianism, which claimed that Christ’s human and divine natures were separate. Therefore, they believed that Mary was only the mother of the human Christ, not of the divine Christ.
The affirmation of the title Mother of God (since it already was in use), affirmed the unity of the divine and human natures of Christ. Since Christ is fully God and fully human - and since Christ’s human nature can’t be separated from His divine nature, the Council made a dogmatic statement - that Jesus is God, Jesus’ humanity cannot be separated from His divinity, and thus Mary is the Theotokos (God-bearer in Greek) - the Mother of God. She isn’t the Mother of the Trinity or the source of the Godhead, but she is the mother of God Incarnate - the mother of Jesus Christ who is God.
In that case -- isn't it more than "just a little noticeable" that not one single NT writer reports it being used?? Their silence on that point is deafening.
They depict Jesus as God, but never Mary as the mother of God.The Gospels of Matthew, Luke and John all depict Mary as the mother of God.
They depict Jesus as God, but never Mary as the mother of God.
They are concerned with Mary mainly to depict the birth of Jesus. Then they begin to ignore her for the rest of the Bible so much (except of some small details in the Jesus's story) that it must be very strange to you, with your view of her being so theologically important and high being.
What is your explanation for such ignorance by the writers of the New Testament?