The Death and True Resurrection of Jesus.

Bro.T

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I understand those verses. Jesus rose before sunrise on Sunday morning. Jesus rose early on the first day!

Mark 16:9
Now after He had risen early on the first day of the week.

Jesus rose sometime after sunset on Saturday. Jesus had probably a twelve hour period within which He rose from the tomb. Mary arrived at sunrise or just before.

MORNING IS FROM MIDNIGHT TO NOON.

According to the prophet Daniel Jesus rose Saturday daytime, went in the grave wed night. Jesus gave a sign three days and three nights as Jonas was in the belly of the whale three days and three nights, and Daniel back it up. Plus you need to start posting Mark 16: 1-6 first. Then post Mark 16:9 so people can read the full story.

The way you post is kinda deceiving the people.
 
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Bro.T

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We have already shown you that your timeline is completely wrong. You will not listen. You keep repeating your incorrect timeline. Just because 1+2+3=6, 3+3+1 does not mean it equals 6 too. A week is 7 days...when was man made? When was the Sabbath? What day was the 1st day of the week? Sure He rose before Sunday dawn. I never said otherwise! He rose sometime after the Sabbath sunset and Sunday dawn..

You haven't prove nothing, absolutely nothing! All you have prove is that you want to pick and choose what to believe and what not to believe. That shorten your knowledge in the word of God tremendously. I already prove you can' get three days and three nights From Good Friday to Sunday Morning.
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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You haven't prove nothing, absolutely nothing! All you have prove is that you want to pick and choose what to believe and what not to believe. That shorten your knowledge in the word of God tremendously. I already prove you can' get three days and three nights From Good Friday to Sunday Morning.

Well no that is what YOU are doing! Yes, scripture has proven your timeline wrong! The eyewitnesses on the road to Emmaus have proven it wrong, not I...and you completely ignore them.
 
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Acts 12:1-4, NET v2.1, "About that time King Herod laid hands on some from the church to harm them. He had James, the brother of John, executed with a sword. When he saw that this pleased the Jews, he proceeded to arrest Peter too. (This took place during the feast of Unleavened Bread.) When he had seized him, he put him in prison, handing him over to four squads of soldiers to guard him. Herod planned to bring him out for public trial after the Passover.

Clearly the feast of Unleavened Bread and the Passover are separate things.

They are inseparable in that the Passover is eaten on the first night of Hag Matzot (unleavened bread).

Considering that the Passover is slaughtered before the first night of Hag Matzot; the author of Acts is clearly referring to Hag Matzot as Passover.
 
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I can worship God any day I want, even on Sundays. What's wrong with you?

Paul writes:
"Accept the one whose faith is weak, without quarreling over disputable matters. One person’s faith allows them to eat anything, but another, whose faith is weak, eats only vegetables. The one who eats everything must not treat with contempt the one who does not, and the one who does not eat everything must not judge the one who does, for God has accepted them. Who are you to judge someone else’s servant? To their own master, servants stand or fall. And they will stand, for the Lord is able to make them stand.

One person considers one day more sacred than another; another considers every day alike. Each of them should be fully convinced in their own mind. Whoever regards one day as special does so to the Lord. Whoever eats meat does so to the Lord, for they give thanks to God; and whoever abstains does so to the Lord and gives thanks to God. For none of us lives for ourselves alone, and none of us dies for ourselves alone. If we live, we live for the Lord; and if we die, we die for the Lord. So, whether we live or die, we belong to the Lord. For this very reason, Christ died and returned to life so that he might be the Lord of both the dead and the living.

You, then, why do you judge your brother or sister?" - Romans 14

The passage doesn't say anything about Shabbat.

Let's break it down for understanding.

(CLV) Ro 14:1
Now the infirm in the faith be taking to yourselves, but not for discrimination of reasonings.

(CLV) Ro 14:2
One, indeed, is believing to eat all things, yet the infirm one is eating greens.

This is about eating.

(CLV) Ro 14:3
Let not him who is eating be scorning him who is not eating. (fasting) Yet let not him who is not eating (fasting) be judging him who is eating, for God took him to Himself.

Not eating is called fasting.

(CLV) Ro 14:4
Who are you who are judging Another's domestic? To his own Master he is standing or falling. Now he will be made to stand, for the Lord is able to make him stand.

(CLV) Ro 14:5
One indeed, is deciding for one day rather than another day, yet one is deciding for every day. Let each one be fully assured in his own mind.

(CLV) Ro 14:6
He who is disposed to the day, is disposed to it to the Lord; and he who is eating, is eating to the Lord, for he is thanking God. And he who is not eating, (fasting) to the Lord is not eating, (fasting) and is thanking God.

10 times within 6 verses we see the word eating; but some completely ignore the word eating; and want to make this about the Sabbath. Nowhere was the sabbath mentioned in this passage. As a matter of fact, the Sabbath isn't mentioned in this whole letter.

This passage tells the readers not to squabble over which days to fast. YHWH gave no commands on which days to fast.

We can find an examples of these set fast days in Luke 5:33-35, Luke 18:11-12
 
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HARK!

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The Council of Nicea established a standard for Paschal calculation, using the method of Paschal computation already in use by the Church in Egypt.

Constantine the Great and Judaism
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Colossal head of Constantine (4th century), Capitoline museum, Rome
Under Constantine the Great Jewish clergy were given the same exemptions as Christian clergy.[1] Constantine, however, supported the separation of the date of Easter from the Jewish Passover (see also Quartodecimanism), stating in his letter after the First Council of Nicaea (which had already decided the matter):

"... it appeared an unworthy thing that in the celebration of this most holy feast we should follow the practice of the Jews, who have impiously defiled their hands with enormous sin, and are, therefore, deservedly afflicted with blindness of soul ... Let us then have nothing in common with the detestable Jewish crowd; for we have received from our Saviour a different way."[2]

Theodoret's Ecclesiastical History records The Epistle of the Emperor Constantine, concerning the matters transacted at the Council, addressed to those Bishops who were not present:

"It was, in the first place, declared improper to follow the custom of the Jews in the celebration of this holy festival, because, their hands having been stained with crime, the minds of these wretched men are necessarily blinded. ... Let us, then, have nothing in common with the Jews, who are our adversaries. ... Let us ... studiously avoiding all contact with that evil way. ... For how can they entertain right views on any point who, after having compassed the death of the Lord, being out of their minds, are guided not by sound reason, but by an unrestrained passion, wherever their innate madness carries them. ... lest your pure minds should appear to share in the customs of a people so utterly depraved. ... Therefore, this irregularity must be corrected, in order that we may no more have any thing in common with those parricides and the murderers of our Lord. ... no single point in common with the perjury of the Jews."[3]

Constantine the Great and Judaism - Wikipedia
 
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klutedavid

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According to the prophet Daniel Jesus rose Saturday daytime, went in the grave wed night. Jesus gave a sign three days and three nights as Jonas was in the belly of the whale three days and three nights, and Daniel back it up. Plus you need to start posting Mark 16: 1-6 first. Then post Mark 16:9 so people can read the full story.

The way you post is kinda deceiving the people.
You keep quoting from the book of Daniel and claiming, that Daniel said that Jesus rose on Saturday. Here is the verse from Daniel that you keep referring to.

Daniel 9:27
And he will make a firm covenant with the many for one week, but in the middle of the week he will put a stop to sacrifice and grain offering.

Where does Daniel state that Jesus was in the grave on Wednesday night. Wednesday night is actually Thursday in Hebrew time. Remember, Wednesday night is the reverse of our western time.

In Hebrew time, Wednesday night is the six hours after sunset on Tuesday. So your saying Jesus was buried on our Tuesday night?

Everyone is getting a sore head trying to convert back and forth, from Hebrew time to western time.

It is unclear in Daniel who stops the sacrifice. Which 'firm covenant' is being referred to here?

You cannot cite Daniel as proof of anything regarding the burial of Jesus.

When all is said and done, we know Jesus rose on the third day and not after the third day.

We also know that Jesus rose on the first day because the scripture states this is so.

Mark 16:9
Now after He had risen early on the first day of the week, He first appeared to Mary Magdalene, from whom He had cast out seven demons.

Luke 24:21
But we were hoping that it was He who was going to redeem Israel. Indeed, besides all this, it is the third day since these things happened. (The eyewitnesses, the two disciples on the road to Emmaus)
 
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I'll never understand why people think that we cannot worship God every day at every time for every reason and that we must do it at such and such time on such and such day at such and such hour for such and such reason...that kind of thinking was what put our Savior on the cross to begin with.

Have you read Leviticus 23?
 
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How can there be two Sabbaths in a week?

A Sabbath is a seventh day. You cannot have two seventh days in a week.

Something is deeply wrong in your interpretation.


(CLV) Lv 23:32
It is a שבת of שבתון for you, and you will humble your souls. On the ninth day of the month in the evening, from evening until evening shall you cease for your שבת.

Have you ever heard of the fallacy of the undistributed middle?
 
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Luk 24:1 On the first day of the week, very early in the morning...
Joh 20:1 Early on the first day of the week, while it was still dark...

Regardless how you count days scripture says Christ rose on the first day of the week.

(CLV) Lk 24:1
Now in the early depths of one of the sabbaths, they, and certain others together with them, came onto the tomb, bringing the spices which they make ready.

(CLV) Jn 20:1
Now, on one of the sabbaths, Miriam Magdalene is coming to the tomb in the morning, there being still darkness, and is observing the stone taken away from the door of the tomb.

One = μια mia

Protos means first

Of the = των tOn

Sabbaths = σαββατων sabbatOn

Sabbaton plural, not day singular. The word day does not even exist in these verses.
 
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klutedavid

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(CLV) Lv 23:32
It is a שבת of שבתון for you, and you will humble your souls. On the ninth day of the month in the evening, from evening until evening shall you cease for your שבת.

Have you ever heard of the fallacy of the undistributed middle?
Now the day of atonement is indeed a Sabbath day. The count is now at one. Any more Hark?
 
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klutedavid

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(CLV) Lk 24:1
Now in the early depths of one of the sabbaths, they, and certain others together with them, came onto the tomb, bringing the spices which they make ready.
Which means the first day after the Sabbath. Which is the translation in every Bible translation on earth. Except for your Bible translation of course, Hark.

Translate the following verse please.

Matthew 28:1
Now after the Sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, Mary Magdalene and the other Mary came to look at the grave.
 
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Now the day of atonement is indeed a Sabbath day. The count is now at one. Any more Hark?

The count is now two.

7th day shabbat = 1

Yom Kipprim = 2

Let's go for three!

(CLV) Gn 13:6
But the land would not sustain them while dwelling (לשבת) together, for their goods had become so abundant that they were not able to dwell (לשבת) together.
 
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Der Alte

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Let's continue in Mark (15:42) And now when the even was come, because it was the preparation day, that is, the day before the Sabbath, (43) Joseph of Aarimathaea, an honourable counseller, which also waited for the kingdom of God, came, and went in boldly unto Pilate, and craved the body of Jesus.
The above scriptures are where the problem lied with the early church trying to interpret the events of the bible. One should take note, that what the majority of modern day Christians practice or follow come directly from the Roman Catholic Church. You had non spiritual people trying to decipher events that were spiritual. Since the scriptures stated, that the preparation day, was the day before the Sabbath, they automatically assumed this event took place on a Friday, because they knew the Lord's Sabbath was from Friday evening to Saturday evening.

That is how they came up with the concept that Jesus died on Friday and He rose early Sunday morning. What they failed to take into account were the Lord's Holy Days or as they are also called High Sabbaths. There are seven yearly Sabbaths, and they, with the exception of Pentecost, can fall on any day of the week. At the beginning of this lesson, it was explained in Leviticus (23:4) that the Passover which is the 14th of the month, is the day before the feast of Unleavened Bread, which is a Holy Day or A High Sabbath. The Passover is sometimes referred as the preparation day because they used this day to prepare for the feast. The Feast of Unleavened Bread is the Sabbath which was being refereed to in Mark 15:42) when it was stated that Joseph craved the body of Jesus. Jesus had been crucified on the Passover and the next day was the Feast of Unleavened Bread. Jesus foretold when His death would occur.

(Matthew 26:1) And it came to pass, when Jesus had finished all these sayings, he said unto his disciples, (2) Ye know that after two days is the feast of the passover, and the Son of man is betrayed to be crucified.

Now remember God's days start at evening and end the next evening. Keep that in mind as you view the next set of scriptures. Jesus had been betrayed by Judas the evening of the Passover. John 13 tells how Jesus and His disciples, that evening, were sharing the Passover meal. John (18:3) shows that same evening; Jesus was betrayed and taken away. It was still nighttime when they took Jesus, because the men that came and took and bound Him had lanterns and torches.

Jesus was crucified the next day but it was still the Passover. Remember God's days run from sundown to sundown. Jesus had been taken into custody the night of the Passover and the next morning which is the day of the Passover, He was condemned and crucified.

The following verses deomonstrate how Pilate was willing to release Jesus the morning after he had been taken in to custody. It was still the Passover. We all know the Jews refused and Jesus was crucified.

(John 18:39) But ye have a custom, that I should release unto you one at the passover: will ye therefore that I release unto you the King of the Jews? (40) Then cried they all again, saying, Not this man, but Barabbas. Now Barabbas was a robber.

Remember Mark (15:42) Joseph craved the body of Jesus the evening of the Passover. Now one can see that this was towards the end of the Passover.
3 Days And 3 Nights

The scriptures explain how Jesus was in the earth 3 days and 3 nights just as He had foretold.
How It Really Happened

3 Days And 3 Nights
SU M T W TH F S
Days 1 1 1
Nights 1 1 1


In looking at the previous scriptures one should now have a better understanding, as to what took place. Remember Mary did not come to the Grave site until the first day of the week which is Sunday. (John 20:1) "The first day of the week cometh Mary Magdalene early, when it was yet dark, unto the sepulcher", And it was early in the morning and it was still dark. But Jesus had already risen. That's because Jesus went into His grave right before the end of the Passover or Wed. evening. The passing of the Passover brought in the Feast of the Unleavened Bread. So Jesus would Have been in the Grave Wednesday night, Thursday daytime and Thursday night, Friday daytime, Friday night, Saturday daytime and Jesus rose right before the sun went down on Saturday. Hence one has the 3 days and 3 nights which Jesus prophesied.
His death Wednesday night is consistent with the comment of the prophet Daniel, stating the Messiah would be cut off (killed) in the midst of the week.
Daniel 9:26-27 26 And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined. 27 And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week (Wednesday is the middle of the week) he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, (Remember, Jesus is the sacrificial Passover Lamb)
.
Totally incorrect. First and seventh ULB are called "holy convocations." They are never called a Sabbath anywhere in either testament. Neither day has a day of preparation since preparing and cooking food is specifically permitted on both days.
Exodus 12:15-16
15 Seven days shall ye eat unleavened bread; even the first day ye shall put away leaven out of your houses: for whosoever eateth leavened bread from the first day until the seventh day, that soul shall be cut off from Israel.
16 And in the first day there shall be an holy convocation, and in the seventh day there shall be an holy convocation to you; no manner of work shall be done in them, save that which every man must eat, that only may be done of you.
There was only one Sabbath in passion week, the weekly Sabbath and there was only one "Parasceue," which means "preparation," then and now in Greek, the Friday before the weekly Sabbath.
Is the Passover lamb ever called a sacrifice in the O.T.?
 
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Der Alte

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What you share above is something commonly repeated, but is actually not true.

The Christian Feast of Pascha (usually called "Easter" in English) goes about as far back as can be in Christian history. It was universal and ubiquitous among Christians throughout the known world by the mid 2nd century.

When Anicetus was bishop of Rome (157-168 AD) he and Polycarp, bishop of Smyrna met together and discussed many things at length. When they came to the topic of the celebration of Pascha they differed.

In Smyrna and other parts of the Christian East the method to calculate the Feast of Pascha was effectively to simply follow the Jewish calculation of Passover; and so the Christian Paschal Feast occurred on the same day as the Jewish Passover--Nissan 14th. While in Rome, and other parts of the Christian West, as well as in Alexandria the practice was to celebrate the Paschal Feast on the first Sunday after the Jewish Passover.

These two Christian pastors both asserted that the customs of their practice dated back to the Apostles themselves; and they agreed that there was no reason to fight over the matter.

Over time the Quartodeciman tradition (Pascha on Nissan 14th) slowly faded from usage, while other methods of computation, similar to what Rome and Alexandria did, became more common. By the time of the Council of Nicea this method of computation had become nearly universal--with some regional differences. The Council of Nicea, which had gathered chiefly to address the Arian Controversy, also took the time to produce a standardized way to compute the Paschal Feast. They settled on the computation method that was already being used by the Church in Alexandria: The Paschal Feast was to be celebrated on the first Sunday after the Paschal Full Moon (the first full moon after March 21st, the spring equinox in the Northern Hemisphere).

That's why the Paschal Feast this year (2021) is on Sunday, the 4th of April. Because the Paschal Full Moon is March 28th this year. It's a simple way to calculate using things which are ubiquitous in nature--the earth's revolution around the sun and the phases of the moon.

So why is the Paschal Feast--Pascha for short--called "Easter" in English? To that we need to turn to a bit of English and European history.

In the 5th century we get into what historians refer to as the Migration Period, a period of massive migration of Germanic tribes and peoples across Europe. It's the same thing that resulted in the fall of Rome to the Visigoths and Vandals. It's why France is called France and not Gaul. In this period was when the Anglo-Saxon invasions of Britain took place. As Rome pulled out of Britain, the power vaccuum was filled by invading Anglo-Saxons.

After the Anglo-Saxon invasion, they were converted to Christianity by both Irish missionary-monks and missionaries from mainland Europe. A man by the name of Augustine (different Augustine) was sent by the bishop of Rome to establish a diocese in southern Britain--which became the Archdiocese of Canterbury, and to this day the Archbishop of Canterbury is still the spiritual head of the English Church. Under the work of Augustine of Canterbury and the Irish monks the Anglo-Saxons became Christians.

Fast forward several centuries, and we have an Anglo-Saxon monk by the name of Bede writing his possibly most well-known work, On the Reckoning of Time. In a rather brief section in the work he says he felt it was important to discuss how the Anglo-Saxons keep time, and offers the names of the 12 months which the Anglo-Saxons use. He writes that the equivalent Anglo-Saxon month to Roman April was called Eostermonath, which according to Bede gets its name from a goddess named Eostre at one time worshiped by the Anglo-Saxons prior to their conversion to Christianity. But they had long ago abandoned all their pagan practices and now only followed the Christian religion.

And that's it. That's everything Bede has to say about that. And we don't have any other sources. In fact, nobody other than Bede even mentions a goddess named Eostre that was worshipped by the formerly Pagan Anglo-Saxons. Not a single record, no written history, no archeological evidence, nothing. Which has raised the question among many scholars about the possibility that Bede may be wrong--that there was no goddess worshiped by the Anglo-Saxons named Eostre, and so Bede's etymology of Eostermonath was incorrect. It wouldn't be the first time ancient or medieval people were mistaken about the etymology of a word, false etymologies are actually pretty common.

So if Eostre wasn't the name of a goddess, then what could have been the reason for the name Eostermonath? One theory is that it really does just mean something like dawn or dawning month--the month in which the sun has began to rise earlier in the morning each day. By connecting Eostre with old word for "dawn"--like our modern word "east", the direction of the rising sun.

The simple truth of the matter is we don't know, Bede is our only source, and he could be mistaken. But in either case you'll notice that the only thing "pagan" here that could exist is the name "Easter" itself. But worrying about that is like worrying about the fact that the days of the week are named after Roman and Germanic gods (Sun's Day, Moon's Day, Tiw's Day, Woden's Day, Thor's Day, Frigga's Day, Saturn's Day). Or that many of the names of the months are named after Roman gods--January-Janus, May-Maya, June-Juno, etc.

To which we might quote Shakespeare, "A rose by any other name would smell just as sweet."

Call it "Easter", or call it by the more ancient and more universal Pascha, it's the same thing--the Feast of our Lord's Glorious Resurrection from the Dead.

The topic of Christmas is a much more complicated subject, but one which I'd be willing to go into discussion about if you'd be interested.

-CryptoLutheran
I'm plagiarizing this.
 
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Which means the first day after the Sabbath. Which is the translation in every Bible translation on earth. Except for your Bible translation of course, Hark.

Translate the following verse please.

Matthew 28:1
Now after the Sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, Mary Magdalene and the other Mary came to look at the grave.

The words in grey don't appear in the Greek manuscripts.

(CLV) Mt 28:1
Now it is the evening of the sabbaths. At the lighting up into one of the sabbaths came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to behold the sepulcher.
 
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klutedavid

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The words in grey don't appear in the Greek manuscripts.

(CLV) Mt 28:1
Now it is the evening of the sabbaths. At the lighting up into one of the sabbaths came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to behold the sepulcher.
Thayer's Greek Lexicon

b. with a genitive (Winer's Grammar, § 54, 6), ὀψέ σαββάτων, the sabbath having just passed, after the sabbath, i. e.: at the early dawn of the first day of the week — (an interpretation absolutely demanded by the added specification τῇ ἐπιφωσκούσῃ κτλ.), Matthew 28:1 cf. Mark 16:1 (ὀψέ τῶν βασιλέως χρόνων, long after the times of the king, Plutarch, Numbers 1; ὀψέ μυστηρίων, the mysteries being over, Philostr. vit. Apoll. 4, 18); (but an examination of the instances just cited (and others) will show that they fail to sustain the rendering after (although it is recognized by Passow, Pape, Schenkl, and other lexicographers); ὀψέ followed by a genitive seems always to be partitive, denoting late in the period specified by the genitive (and consequently still belonging to it), cf. Buttmann, § 132, 7 Rem.; Kühner, § 414, 5 c. β. Hence, in Matthew, the passage cited 'late on the sabbath'). Keim, iii, p. 552f (English translation, vi., 303f) endeavors to relieve the passage differently (by adopting the Vulg.vesperesabbati, on the evening of the sabbath), but without success. ((Cf. Keil, Comm. über Matth. at the passage.)
 
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prodromos

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(CLV) Lk 24:1
Now in the early depths of one of the sabbaths, they, and certain others together with them, came onto the tomb, bringing the spices which they make ready.

(CLV) Jn 20:1
Now, on one of the sabbaths, Miriam Magdalene is coming to the tomb in the morning, there being still darkness, and is observing the stone taken away from the door of the tomb.

One = μια mia

Protos means first

Of the = των tOn

Sabbaths = σαββατων sabbatOn

Sabbaton plural, not day singular. The word day does not even exist in these verses.
What level of Koine Greek have you completed studies in?
 
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prodromos

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Thayer's Greek Lexicon

b. with a genitive (Winer's Grammar, § 54, 6), ὀψέ σαββάτων, the sabbath having just passed, after the sabbath, i. e.: at the early dawn of the first day of the week — (an interpretation absolutely demanded by the added specification τῇ ἐπιφωσκούσῃ κτλ.), Matthew 28:1 cf. Mark 16:1 (ὀψέ τῶν βασιλέως χρόνων, long after the times of the king, Plutarch, Numbers 1; ὀψέ μυστηρίων, the mysteries being over, Philostr. vit. Apoll. 4, 18); (but an examination of the instances just cited (and others) will show that they fail to sustain the rendering after (although it is recognized by Passow, Pape, Schenkl, and other lexicographers); ὀψέ followed by a genitive seems always to be partitive, denoting late in the period specified by the genitive (and consequently still belonging to it), cf. Buttmann, § 132, 7 Rem.; Kühner, § 414, 5 c. β. Hence, in Matthew, the passage cited 'late on the sabbath'). Keim, iii, p. 552f (English translation, vi., 303f) endeavors to relieve the passage differently (by adopting the Vulg.vesperesabbati, on the evening of the sabbath), but without success. ((Cf. Keil, Comm. über Matth. at the passage.)
Agreed.
I have to wonder how anyone can make sense of the CLV rendering of the passage? It would seem to introduce even more difficulties.
 
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Thayer's Greek Lexicon

b. with a genitive (Winer's Grammar, § 54, 6), ὀψέ σαββάτων, the sabbath having just passed, after the sabbath, i. e.: at the early dawn of the first day of the week — (an interpretation absolutely demanded by the added specification τῇ ἐπιφωσκούσῃ κτλ.), Matthew 28:1 cf. Mark 16:1 (ὀψέ τῶν βασιλέως χρόνων, long after the times of the king, Plutarch, Numbers 1; ὀψέ μυστηρίων, the mysteries being over, Philostr. vit. Apoll. 4, 18); (but an examination of the instances just cited (and others) will show that they fail to sustain the rendering after (although it is recognized by Passow, Pape, Schenkl, and other lexicographers); ὀψέ followed by a genitive seems always to be partitive, denoting late in the period specified by the genitive (and consequently still belonging to it), cf. Buttmann, § 132, 7 Rem.; Kühner, § 414, 5 c. β. Hence, in Matthew, the passage cited 'late on the sabbath'). Keim, iii, p. 552f (English translation, vi., 303f) endeavors to relieve the passage differently (by adopting the Vulg.vesperesabbati, on the evening of the sabbath), but without success. ((Cf. Keil, Comm. über Matth. at the passage.)

That's quite a mouthful to explain away a simple statement.

Occam's razor, Ockham's razor, Ocham's razor (Latin: novacula Occami), or the principle of parsimony or law of parsimony (Latin: lex parsimoniae) is the problem-solving principle that "entities should not be multiplied without necessity",[1][2] or more simply, the simplest explanation is usually the right one. The idea is attributed to English Franciscan friar William of Ockham (c. 1287–1347), a scholastic philosopher and theologian who used a preference for simplicity to defend the idea of divine miracles. This philosophical razor advocates that when presented with competing hypotheses about the same prediction, one should select the solution with the fewest assumptions,[3] and that this is not meant to be a way of choosing between hypotheses that make different predictions.

Occam's razor - Wikipedia
 
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