The Real Rapture - 4
What Really Happens and When.
The preceding arguments were necessary to prove that, the theory of a secret rapture, followed by a period of tribulation, is not sustained by the scriptures,neither is the theory of a brief appearing.
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"Blessed are the meek: for they shall inherit the earth."
[Matthew 5: 4].
safswan.
This was a great instruction in myth. Here is the truth:
Understanding Paul’s meaning in 2 Thes. 2
First we must understand that what Paul actually wrote was:
3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for - except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition
Most translators added some text - and we can only guess that their added text was Paul's meaning. In fact, I suspect it is. They typically add: "that Day will not come". WHAT day? What day did Paul just mention? From your text:
"the day of the Lord has already come" So Paul was referring back to the "Day of the Lord." However, some Greek texts have it as "the Day of Christ." Which is correct? We don't know. Neither do we know, in Paul's mind, if there was a difference. If I had to guess, I would say Paul's meaning was the Day of the Lord, for that is what he used in his first letter to the Thessalonian church. We all I, believe, will agree that "Christ is Lord."
Next, we MUST understand that the THEME of this passage is the gathering.
(Amplified) 2 Thes. 2:1 BUT RELATIVE to the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ (the Messiah) and our gathering together to [meet] Him, we beg you, brethren,
Therefore, the CORRECT theory of what Paul is telling us MUST include the gathering. Any theory that does not clearly include the rapture or gathering of the church cannot be the intent of the Author.
Now let's get into verse 3:
NASB. 3 Let no one in any way deceive you, for it will not come unless the apostasy comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction,
“It” here is referring back to
the Day of the Lord. The real question here is, what did Paul mean by the Greek word "Apostasia?" Many people puzzle over it, yet there is no need, because in three parallel verses Paul clearly shows us his meaning. It is called
CONTEXT. Notice in this very verse, SOMETHING must occur FIRST, before the man of sin can be revealed. Look VERY CLOSE:
only ONE THING comes FIRST:
3 Let no one deceive you by any means; for that Day will not come unless the falling away comes first, (KJV)
3 Let no one deceive you in any way. For that day will not come, unless the rebellion comes first and the man of lawlessness[b] is revealed, the son of destruction,(ESV)
3 Let no one in any way deceive you, for it will not come unless the apostasy comes first and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction,(NASB)
Don't let anyone deceive you in any way. For that day will not come unless the apostasy comes first and the man of lawlessness[c] is revealed, the son of destruction. (HCSB)
let no man beguile you in any wise: for it will not be, except the falling away come first and the man of [c]sin be revealed, the son of perdition, (ASV)
Let no man deceive you by any means, for unless there come a revolt first and the man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition (DRB)
let not any one deceive you in any manner, because -- if the falling away may not come first and the man of sin be revealed -- the son of the destruction, (YLT)
So there is only ONE THING that must come first, not two things. And that one thing is hidden in Paul's use of the word "Apostasia." Then, AFTER that one thing will take place,
the apostasia, then the man of sin can be revealed.
Now verse 6: A
nd now you know what is holding him back, so that he may be revealed at the proper time.
Read closely:
(NIV)6 And now you know what is holding him back, so that he may be revealed at the proper time.
(NASB) 6 And you know what restrains him now, so that in his time he will be revealed.
(ESV) 6 And you know what is restraining him now so that he may be revealed in his time.
(ASV) 6 And now ye know that which restraineth, to the end that he may be revealed in his own season.
(HCSB) 6 And you know what currently restrains [him], so that he will be revealed in his time.
(Young's Literal) 6 and now, what is keeping down ye have known, for his being revealed in his own time,
(Peshitta - Lamsa) 6 And now you know what has prevented him from being revealed in his time.
A beginning reader could understand the two parts to this sentence: first,
there is something holding back, restraining, holding down, the man of sin from being revealed, and then at the proper time he will be revealed. After reading this
we are SUPPOSE TO KNOW who and what the restrainer is, who or what is holding him back, and preventing him from being revealed until his time, for Paul wrote, "and NOW you know."
Paul wanted us to KNOW so much, he basically wrote it yet again. Something is restraining or holding back, until such time as the restraining is removed or taken out of the way, and THEN the man of sin will be removed.
(ASV)7 For the mystery of lawlessness doth already work: only [there is] one that restraineth now, until he be taken out of the way.
8 And then shall be revealed the lawless one, ...
(NASB) 7 For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work; only he who now restrains will do so until he is taken out of the way.
8 Then that lawless one will be revealed ...
(Green's Literal) For the mystery of lawlessness already is working, only he is holding back now, until it comes out of the midst.
8 And then "the Lawless One" will be revealed, ...
(Peshitta - Lamsa) 7 For the mystery of iniquity is already at work: until he who now is the obstacle be taken out of the way.
8 Then shall the Wicked be exposed, ...
(The Emphasized Bible) 7 For, the secret, of lawlessness, already, is inwardly working itself, - only, until, he that restraineth at present, shall be gone, out of the midst:
8 And, then, shall be revealed the lawless one,
Again, ANY beginning reader would be able to understand that
the restraining force or the one holding back or the one being an obstacle to the revealing, is going to be taken out of the way, removed, gone out of the midst. And AFTER that happens, THEN the man of sin can and will be revealed.
Verses 6-8 are written in simple language, easy to understand. It is written very plainly, and all translations give us the same idea. Now we have seen many times in a row with the different translations, that there is a restraining force holding the man of sin down, and PREVENTING his revealing. And we know that the restrainer will be
taken out of the way, or removed, or departed out of the midst FIRST, BEFORE the man of sin can be revealed.
Now, back to us KNOWING: Paul wrote "And NOW YOU KNOW."
WHY did Paul write this?
Because HE JUST TOLD US who the restrainer was. He wrote: "
And Now You Know," in verse 6, so if we back up verse by verse and look for something "taken out of the way," we will KNOW - beyond any doubt - WHO the restrainer is.
WE find NOTHING "taken out of the way" in verse 5, nothing in verse 4. But consider verse 3
Don't let anyone deceive you in any way, for [that day will not come] until the [apostasia] occurs and
the man of lawlessness is revealed, the man doomed to destruction.
Notice this verse carefully, then answer the question: is the man of sin revealed at the end of this verse? Most certainly he is! "IS revealed." Look back up at verse 3 in the different translations shown: many say the same thing: after verse 3a is finished, then in 3b the man of sin
IS REVEALED and Paul goes on to say what he will do when he is revealed, proving that in verse 3 Paul’s intention is that
he IS revealed in 3b.
Therefore simple logic tells us that in the first part of this verse the one restraining is "TAKEN OUT OF THE WAY." It can be no other way, for Paul told is twice, once in verse 6 and again in verses 7 & 8 that
the man of sin cannot be revealed until the one restraining is taken out of the way, yet in 3b he is certainly now revealed. Without any doubt then, in verse 3a, the “taken out of the way” MUST have taken place: the one restraining has been removed or taken out of the way.
Remember, we have just seen many times the restrainer mentioned, then the man of sin revealed in different translations. We have seen several times the restrainer mentioned, and then the restrainer REMOVED, DEPARTED
and then the man of sin revealed. We know that the revealing CANNOT HAPPEN until the restrainer or the one “holding down,” is GONE out of the midst or taken out of the way.
Here is where Paul TELLS US WHO: (And now you know…)
"Let no one in any way deceive you, for it will not come unless
the apostasy comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction"
Now, we have just seen many verses telling us what must come first: it is the REMOVAL or DEPARTURE of the one restraining. Therefore, this word "apostasia MUST carry the meaning of something "taken out of the way," or something departed or something gone out of the midst. Now, look again at one of the FIRST English translations:
Geneva Bible: 1587
3 Let no man deceiue you by any meanes: for that day shall not come, except
there come a departing first, and that that man of sinne be disclosed, euen the sonne of perdition,
This translation fits PERFECTLY with all the previous verses shown in MANY translations. There are several other early translations that use the word “departing.” If there is something “departing” is it being “taken out of the way? It certainly is, if it is not departing under its own power. And what is the THEME of this passage? It is the gathering, were from a whole, a certain part is “taken out of the way.” So this verse really does tell us WHAT or WHO is removed out of the way, or taken out of the midst. It is the GATHERING, the rapture of the church. Don't scream yet: at the catching up, is the church "departing?" You know it is!
We cannot ignore that this is not just any departing, it is
THE departing. The adjective is there big as life in the Greek Texts: this is not your everyday ordinary departing, it is the SIGNIFICANT departing, the one Paul was talking about in the first verse: the “gathering.”
Therefore, DON'T EVER think we don't know who the restrainer is, for Paul wrote, AND NOW YOU KNOW!
Since this is truth, we need to remove this idea of a great “falling away” or apostasy from our teaching. The true church is GROWING, not falling away.
Yes, a few do fall away, but more come. This theory of a great “falling away” is false doctrine, not found in the scriptures. It came from the KJV’s poor translation of “apostasia.”
Now, according to Strong’s Greek dictionary, could “apostasia” mean a departing such as the rapture? Let’s look. “Apostasia” is a compound Greek work starting with the word “Apo.”
Apo G575
of separation
1. of local separation, after verbs of motion from a place i.e. of departing, of fleeing, ...
2. of separation of a part from the whole
...1. where of a whole some part is taken
Does this fit with a “departing” as in the rapture, where of a whole, a part is “taken out of the way?” Yes, it certainly does!
The second word is Stasia or something similar, where we get the idea of a stationary engine or something else that is stationary or not moving. The idea is, the rapture will be SO QUICK, the Bride will be snatched away while the rest of the world is stationary.
I think we can rest assured that Paul knew what this compound word could mean or how it could be used. Perhaps this was not the most common meaning, but it certainly could be used for the rapture. We might also ask: did Paul write of a great catching away in his first letter, or did he write of a great falling away? Of course, he wrote of the rapture.
We could also say it this way:
Verses 3-5 above provide a description of the order of events:
1. The removal of the Church
2. The revealing of the antichrist
3. The antichrist presenting himself as God
And then again in verses 6-8:
1. The Church is holding the antichrist back, though he is still at work now
2. He is to be revealed in the right time
3. The One who holds him back (the Church) is taken out of the way
4. The lawless one (antichrist) is revealed at the proper time
5. The Lord returns to destroy the antichrist (Second Coming)
When using the word "departure" or "removal" in verse 3 above, the subsequent verses coincide and restate the same events. We have three similar statements on the removal of the Church first, and then the revealing of the antichrist.
Paul speaks of the day of the Lord, giving two signs to look for to KNOW one is IN the day of the Lord. (The Greek text is not that the day is coming, but that they were IN IT: it had already started. KJV put it: “as that the day of Christ is at hand.” Young’s Literal puts it more correctly: “as that the day of Christ hath arrived.” They were not scared that the day was coming, they were told they were IN IT. They were indeed upset, for Paul had taught them that they would be caught up before the Day would come. (That is exact what 1 Thes. 5 shows us.)
We know from other scriptures that the man of sin will be revealed for who he really is, at the abomination - right? When he enters the temple and declares that he is God, many will know that he is revealed for who is really is. Well, that is well INTO the day of the Lord. (John begins the Day of the Lord at the 6th seal, but the midpoint is in chapter 11.) Paul’s argument here then is answering the question: how can one know they are IN the day of the Lord (that it has already started)? His answer is, first there will be the great catching away of the Bride of Christ, then the man of sin will be revealed. If anyone sees these two signs, they will KNOW that the Day has started, and they are IN the Day of the Lord. And this is exactly what John shows us in Revelation.
It is truth of scripture that the day of the Lord will come soon. Since Paul declares that what they think is WRONG doctrine, then the truth of scripture cannot be that the day of the Lord is "at hand" as KJV says, but rather that the Day of the Lord IS PRESENT (having already begun). In other words, it is impossible for a false report to be "true doctrine".
The implication is that if the false report was that the Day of the Lord would come soon, then there is a huge contradiction within the Bible on this teaching. The Greek text brings out the truth, that they thought the DAY had come and they were in it.
It is true doctrine that the Day of the Lord will soon come in the future; this is what we still teach today. Therefore, there could not have been a false report of true doctrine. The false report (and correct interpretation of what Paul was writing) was that start of the Day of the Lord was past; had already begun; and that the Day of the Lord was present.
A report saying that the Day of the Lord would "SOON ARRIVE" (which would be true doctrine) could not cause the true Christians in Thessalonia to worry or shake their faith. A message that said the Day of the Lord would soon arrive would be a blessing of comfort for believers; especially believers who were facing tribulation as the Thessalonains were. Christians look forward to that day;
it is the blessed hope.
Therefore, the correct interpretation of 2 Thess 2:2 is that Paul was addressing a false report that said
the Day of the Lord had already begun and was present, which meant that the resurrection was past.