Can someone explain this contradiciton?

Al Touthentop

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As to Ezekiel, he spells out a general rule. But the old testament is filled with exceptions to that general rule.

There are no exceptions at all to what God said in Ezekiel. Ezekiel is talking about eternal consequences for sin. In fact, in the law, God said that people would suffer consequences for two or three generations because of their iniquity. But he wasn't talking about hell, he was talking about earthly consequences. Ezekiel still applied to them. Both sons and fathers could reverse any eternal consequences by turning back to God even if there were ongoing earthly consequences.

God literally said he did those things.

Yes. But he stayed true to what he told to Ezekiel. There is no contradiction.
 
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SkyWriting

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I've literally had nobody that was properly able to answer this.


In Ezekiel 18:20 it is quoted " The one who sins is the one who will die. The child will not share the guilt of the parent, nor will the parent share the guilt of the child. The righteousness of the righteous will be credited to them, and the wickedness of the wicked will be charged against them."

2 Samuel 12:10 however God directly kills David's son for his adultery and David's other children "Now, therefore, the sword will never depart from your house, because you despised me and took the wife of Uriah the Hittite to be your own." and 2 Samuel 12:14 "But because by doing this you have shown utter contempt for the LORD, the son born to you will die."


- One refers to Spiritual Death which is perfect and just.
No child is judged by Jesus based on their parents.

- The other refers to physical death, and not one person
believes that physical death is ever fair. Sometimes
parents even kill their children.

Glad I could help!
 
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Dave L

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I've literally had nobody that was properly able to answer this.


In Ezekiel 18:20 it is quoted " The one who sins is the one who will die. The child will not share the guilt of the parent, nor will the parent share the guilt of the child. The righteousness of the righteous will be credited to them, and the wickedness of the wicked will be charged against them."

2 Samuel 12:10 however God directly kills David's son for his adultery and David's other children "Now, therefore, the sword will never depart from your house, because you despised me and took the wife of Uriah the Hittite to be your own." and 2 Samuel 12:14 "But because by doing this you have shown utter contempt for the LORD, the son born to you will die."
Ezekiel is about civil law. God curses families on a different level. It also proves he is above his law and cannot sin.
 
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ChetSinger

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I've literally had nobody that was properly able to answer this.


In Ezekiel 18:20 it is quoted " The one who sins is the one who will die. The child will not share the guilt of the parent, nor will the parent share the guilt of the child. The righteousness of the righteous will be credited to them, and the wickedness of the wicked will be charged against them."

2 Samuel 12:10 however God directly kills David's son for his adultery and David's other children "Now, therefore, the sword will never depart from your house, because you despised me and took the wife of Uriah the Hittite to be your own." and 2 Samuel 12:14 "But because by doing this you have shown utter contempt for the LORD, the son born to you will die."
Hello TommySoda. I'm no bible scholar, but I'll share my opinion. I agree with Aussie Pete when he said:
Ezekiel was a prophet in an entirely different era. God does not change, but He does change the way He deals with people. The sins of the fathers being visited on the children was pronounced in the desert, to Moses, who sought to know God's ways. (Exodus 34:7). God was introducing a new way of dealing with Israel, based on Israel's complete failure to abide by God's covenant.
That is, Ezekiel was announcing a relaxation of the inter-generational curse that had been pronounced by Moses; he was lightening up.

God does change the rules. For example, you and I are living in the age of the new covenant, which is a huge change in the rules. And consider the rules concerning diet: we began as vegans, became omnivores after the flood, were given kosher rules by Moses (for Israel, anyway) and are now omnivores again.

Imo, that's the answer: God was announcing through Ezekiel that the age of inter-generational curses was finished.
 
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JackRT

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God did not kill David's son for what David had done. He took away David's son to punish David for what he had done. You might consider that to be hair splitting, but that is in fact what happened.

That hair was too fine to split.
 
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HTacianas

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That hair was too fine to split.

Actually, no. Continuing on in 2 Samuel, David said:

2Sa 12:22 And he said, “While the child was alive, I fasted and wept; for I said, ‘Who can tell whether the LORD will be gracious to me, that the child may live?’

Notice that David says "...gracious to me", and not "...gracious to my son". It is David that is being punished, not the son.
 
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SPF

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Wouldn't that be God changing? The Bible claims that God doesn't change but you're implying he he's finding new ways to punish people; which is him changing.
Before answering your OP, I thought I would address this. When we say that God doesn't change, we mean that God's character doesn't change. I hope that helps.

This is from a Pastor, not me:

After the sermon, though, a member at Jackson Heights asked me about an apparent contradiction raised by the text. Ezekiel 18 says repeatedly that the son will not die for the sins of the father, but in 2 Samuel 12:13-14, God through the prophet Nathan tells David that because of David’s sin with Bathsheba, his son with Bathsheba will die. What God says won’t happen in Ezekiel 18 apparently does happen in 2 Samuel 12. What gives?

I think there’s a way to resolve this contradiction, but I want to sneak up on it for a little bit first. In Ezekiel 18, God is very definite. Consider “He shall surely live” in 18:9 and “He shall surely die” in 18:13. It’s a no-exceptions kind of rule that Ezekiel is spelling out.

This seems particularly strange, given that Ezekiel himself knew through Scriptural study and experience that on earth, the rule had significant exceptions. For instance, in Ezekiel 14:12-14, Ezekiel cites Job as an example of a righteous man. The whole point of the book of Job is that sometimes the righteous suffer even though they have done nothing wrong. Job’s children didn’t die because they were wicked; they died as collateral damage from Satan’s attempt to get Job to curse God.

Similarly, the climax of the narrative of the book of Ezekiel comes in Ezekiel 24, when God strikes Ezekiel’s wife down. There’s no evidence that she was a particularly wicked woman; in fact, the only thing said about her (that she is the delight of Ezekiel’s eyes) is positive. However, she dies, and she dies so that when Ezekiel doesn’t mourn for her (because God commands him not to), his behavior will be a prophetic figure of the way that the Jews won’t mourn when Jerusalem falls.

In other words, if we take Ezekiel 18 as being about life under the sun (to steal a phrase from Ecclesiastes), God’s just-so promise about the righteous surely living and the wicked surely dying is flatly contradicted by what Ezekiel knew and by what he lived. This means that either Ezekiel is an inattentive idiot, or he isn’t talking about life under the sun at all.

I think the latter is the much more likely alternative. Certainly, God’s people in the time of the Old Testament didn’t know as much about the afterlife as we do. However, the more spiritually aware among them had a sense that there was an afterlife. For example, after David’s son dies, David himself observes in 2 Samuel 12:23, “I shall go to him, but he will not return to me.” David believed that, though dead, his son continued to exist.

As a result, as we’re trying to understand Ezekiel 18, we should place significant weight on God’s declaration in 18:3 that all souls are His. The Hebrew word there, nephesh, can be translated in a number of ways, but I think that “soul” is the correct rendering there, precisely because of the textual clues that Ezekiel has more than earthly life in mind.

Certainly, life under the sun is fraught with injustice, both real and apparent. When Ezekiel speaks of God meting out perfect justice, he isn’t talking about this life, but the life to come. He writes to warn us that, in the words of Solomon in Ecclesiastes 12:14, “God will bring every deed into judgment, with every secret thing, whether good or evil.”
 
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public hermit

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I am guessing if you do have a Bible.
You ought to just burn, sell or give away your Bible. You do not need it, you have a science book.

Why would you attack the man and not his argument?
 
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Zhen

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God did not kill David's son for what David had done. He took away David's son to punish David for what he had done. You might consider that to be hair splitting, but that is in fact what happened.

As to Ezekiel, he spells out a general rule. But the old testament is filled with exceptions to that general rule.

um does this mean that God will take my family away as punishment if i sinned badly as well..? ><

i prophesied falsely and ended up turning His people away from Him and caused them to end up rebelling against God... :( and because i didn’t trust God enough to do what He told me to do to bring them back to Him, and continued using my own faulty knowledge and efforts, i ended up misleading them down the path of destruction..

i have been seeing omens ever since that are against my family :(
 
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HTacianas

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um does this mean that God will take my family away as punishment if i sinned badly as well..? ><

i prophesied falsely and ended up turning His people away from Him and caused them to end up rebelling against God... :( and because i didn’t trust God enough to do what He told me to do to bring them back to Him, and continued using my own faulty knowledge and efforts, i ended up misleading them down the path of destruction..

i have been seeing omens ever since that are against my family :(

I suppose if you were the king of Israel He might. But since you're a layman it's extremely doubtful.

But we need to be careful about prophesying. Usually nothing good comes from that.
 
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Matt5

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I've literally had nobody that was properly able to answer this.


In Ezekiel 18:20 it is quoted " The one who sins is the one who will die. The child will not share the guilt of the parent, nor will the parent share the guilt of the child. The righteousness of the righteous will be credited to them, and the wickedness of the wicked will be charged against them."

2 Samuel 12:10 however God directly kills David's son for his adultery and David's other children "Now, therefore, the sword will never depart from your house, because you despised me and took the wife of Uriah the Hittite to be your own." and 2 Samuel 12:14 "But because by doing this you have shown utter contempt for the LORD, the son born to you will die."

Different times and places (Heaven vs Earth) call for different judgements.
 
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JacksBratt

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I've literally had nobody that was properly able to answer this.


In Ezekiel 18:20 it is quoted " The one who sins is the one who will die. The child will not share the guilt of the parent, nor will the parent share the guilt of the child. The righteousness of the righteous will be credited to them, and the wickedness of the wicked will be charged against them."

2 Samuel 12:10 however God directly kills David's son for his adultery and David's other children "Now, therefore, the sword will never depart from your house, because you despised me and took the wife of Uriah the Hittite to be your own." and 2 Samuel 12:14 "But because by doing this you have shown utter contempt for the LORD, the son born to you will die."
Ezekiel is talking about eternal death.
In 2 Samuel...it is earthly hardship and consequences.
 
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topher694

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- One refers to Spiritual Death which is perfect and just.
No child is judged by Jesus based on their parents.

- The other refers to physical death, and not one person
believes that physical death is ever fair. Sometimes
parents even kill their children.

Glad I could help!
Good answer.
 
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topher694

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There have been several good answers (and a few goofy ones), so I won't rehash them, however here's another small bit to consider; In the OT especially, often when it attributes negative things to God, it's not always that God caused it directly. It can be that He was the cause of it (vs causing it), or it happened because His hand of protection was removed. Yet, the writing style lumps it together and attributes it to the Lord because one way or another He was involved.

For example when God "hardened" pharaohs heart. God didn't bypass pharaoh's will and force His heart to be hardened (that would be inconsistent with His nature which we see demonstrated in other parts of scripture). However, God was the cause of pharaoh's hard heart... and He knew as much. So it's kinda like God was saying, "I'm just gonna be me and do what I need do, and pharaoh isn't going to like it, in fact it's gonna make him go nuts". Heck, this happens all the time to this day.

So, 2 Samuel 12:15

"After Nathan had gone home, the LORD struck the child that Uriah's wife had borne to David, and he became ill."

could read more like this:
"After Nathan had gone home, the LORD [removed His hand of protection and therefore it happened that] the child was struck that Uriah's wife had borne to David, and he became ill."

Again, this isn't always the case and when it is not the case, there are good reasons for it. That's where context and hermeneutics become very important. And of course some will vehemently disagree, because someone always does.
 
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JackRT

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Resha Caner

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I've literally had nobody that was properly able to answer this.


In Ezekiel 18:20 it is quoted " The one who sins is the one who will die. The child will not share the guilt of the parent, nor will the parent share the guilt of the child. The righteousness of the righteous will be credited to them, and the wickedness of the wicked will be charged against them."

2 Samuel 12:10 however God directly kills David's son for his adultery and David's other children "Now, therefore, the sword will never depart from your house, because you despised me and took the wife of Uriah the Hittite to be your own." and 2 Samuel 12:14 "But because by doing this you have shown utter contempt for the LORD, the son born to you will die."

Are you actually here for an answer or to argue?
 
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Resha Caner

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For example when God "hardened" pharaohs heart. God didn't bypass pharaoh's will and force His heart to be hardened (that would be inconsistent with His nature which we see demonstrated in other parts of scripture). However, God was the cause of pharaoh's hard heart... and He knew as much. So it's kinda like God was saying, "I'm just gonna be me and do what I need do, and pharaoh isn't going to like it, in fact it's gonna make him go nuts". Heck, this happens all the time to this day.
Love it. This one's a keeper.
 
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Maria Billingsley

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I've literally had nobody that was properly able to answer this.


In Ezekiel 18:20 it is quoted " The one who sins is the one who will die. The child will not share the guilt of the parent, nor will the parent share the guilt of the child. The righteousness of the righteous will be credited to them, and the wickedness of the wicked will be charged against them."

2 Samuel 12:10 however God directly kills David's son for his adultery and David's other children "Now, therefore, the sword will never depart from your house, because you despised me and took the wife of Uriah the Hittite to be your own." and 2 Samuel 12:14 "But because by doing this you have shown utter contempt for the LORD, the son born to you will die."
I believe what you are confused about is the false doctrine of "generational curses". Ezekiel clearly states that each of us is responsible for our sin and that the sin can not be transferred from one to another. In the case of David he was punished specifically for his actions. A generational curse was not laid on him. God often lays judgment on people for sin. For example, the flood and Sodom and Gomorrah.
 
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